Imt CDL

Finc 521

Assignment – 1 (2019)

1. Why depreciation has to be added back in the calculation of cash-flow as it is a ___ ?

• manufacturing expense
• Cash expense
• Non-cash expense
• non-operating expense

2. Dividend payment linked to profits left-out after meeting the expansion needs is based on ____ theory/policy?

• Signaling Theory
• Residual payout policy
• Stable Dividend policy
• Constant pay-out policy

3. Brexit, Greece Crises, Chinese Crises, Sub-Prime Crises are the examples of which of the following?

• Systematic Risk
• Unsystematic Risk
• Total Risk
• Specific Risk

4. The cash flows forecasted at the end of projection period for capital budgeting decisions are known as___?

• Initial Cash Flows
• Operating Cash Flows
• Terminal Cash Flows
• Regular Cash Flows

5. The underlying assumption in IRR method is that all the intermittent cashflows are reinvested at.

• Cut-off rate
• required rate of return
• cost of capital
• IRR

6. If the credit period is increased for the customers of the company, operating cycle will___

• reduce
• increase
• remain same
• unaffected

7. Calculate the expected return with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= 16%, p=.3 r=8%

• 17.8
• 18
• 5.8
• 7.35

8. Cost of preference share is ___

• Preference Dividend Rate
• Pref Dividend/Pref. share market price
• Both of the above
• None of the above

9. The internal rate of return generated by an fixed income investment, if held till maturity is known as

• Current Yield
• YTM
• Yield Curve
• Coupon rate

10. Current year dividend of Sun Ltd is Rs 5 per share. Expected growth rate is 8% and market capitalization rate is 10%. Calculate the intrinsic value of stock?

• 5.4
• 67.5
• 54
• 270

11. Market interest rate is 9%. A bond with 10% coupon will sell ____ par value?

• Above
• Below
• at
• None of the above

12. Which of the following is the spontaneous source of financing the working capital requirements?

• Commercial Paper
• Accounts Payable
• Bank Finance
• All of the above

13. Which of the following is ultimate objective of financial management?

• Profit maximization
• Shareholder's wealth maximization
• Leverage  Minimization
• Funding maximization

14. Sheela needs Rs 500000 at the end of 5 years. How much amount she should invest right now @ 10%. Present Value of 1 Rs at 10% for 5 years is .6209

• 100000
• 155225
• 310450
• 400000

15. In case of capital budgeting decisions, the projects in which choice of one automatically excludes the another are known as ___ ?

• Dependent Projects
• Independent Projects
• Mutually Exclusive Projects
• Mutually Inclusive Projects

16. For a firm, weight of equity & debt is 0.6 & 0.4 respectively and cost of equity is 15%, Cost of debt is 9%, tax rate is 30%. Calculate the WACC for the firm?

• 0.126
• 0.1152
• 0.12
• 0.084

17. Moon Ltd invests Rs 800000 in a paper manufacturing plant This is expected to generate Rs 150000 every year for next seven years. Cost of capital for the project is 10%. PVAF for 7 years at 10% is 5.3349. Calculate the NPV of the project?

• 800000
• 800235
• 235
• -235

18. Growth of the company can be expected to be higher when ______ is high?

• pay-out ratio
• distribution ratio
• dividend rate
• retention ratio

19. If business risk of a company goes up than price of stock will.____ ?

• decrease
• increase
• remain same
• fluctuate

20. Which of the following instrument is riskiest?

• Shares
• Preference Shares
• Debentures
• Fixed Deposit

21. As per Bird in hand theory, high dividend pay-out is. _____ to low  pay-out?

• Preferred
• not preferred
• irrelevant for investor
• None of the above

22. 1/ 10,30 credit term means?

• 1% discount
• 0.1% discount
• 1% discount for payment within 10 days
• 0.1% discount for payment within 30 days

23. Which of the following AAA debentures will have highest price if YTM is ___?

• 0.07
• 0.08
• 0.075
• 0.085

24. Increased financial leverage gives rise to ____ volatile EPS?

• more
• less
• non
• None of the above

25. Calculate the standard deviation with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= l6%, p=.3 r=8%

• 74.76
• 24.92
• 4.21
• 8.64

26. Cost of debt is. ____ ?

• Coupon rate
• YTM (I-tax rate)
• YTM
• YTM/Bond Price

27. Discounted payback period is considered an improvement over payback period because it considers. ____ ?

• All cash-flows
• Time Value of Money
• Easy to understand
• All of the above

28. If credit sales is 100000, credit period is 30 days, calculate the average receivables?

• 8219
• 8333
• 3333
• 3288

29. The risk which can be reduced by diversification is known as ____ ?

• Systematic Risk
• Unsystematic Risk
• Total Risk
• Market Risk

30. A stock's average return in last 3 years were 12% and Standard deviation is 8%. Calculate the coefficient of variation?

• 1.5
• 0.33
• 0.67
• 9.6

Assignment – 2

1. A company replaces an old machinery with salvage value of Rs I 00000 replaced by a machinery costing Rs 500000. The relevant cash flows for evaluation of this project is ___ ?

• 100000
• 500000
• 400000
• 600000

2. In India, dividend is ____ in the hands of investors?

• Taxable
• not-taxable
• Heavily taxable
• None of the above

3. Calculate the standard deviation with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= l6%, p=.3 r=8%

• 74.76
• 24.92
• 4.21
• 8.64

4. Which of the following evaluation techniques for long-term investment decisions doesn't consider the time value of money?

• NPV
• IRR
• Pay-Back Period
• Profitability Index

5. Calculate the expected return with the help of following data: p=.3 r=30%, p=.4 r= 16%, p=.3 r=8%

• 17.8
• 18
• 5.8
• 7.35

6. As per liquidity premium theory, interest rates on long term bonds will be        than short term bonds?

• Lower
• Same
• Higher
• Fluctuating

7. Increase in the frequency of compounding results into _______ maturity value.

• Higher
• Lower
• Same
• Fluctuating

8. If the cost of capital of a project goes up then NPV will

• decrease
• increase
• remain same
• fluctuate

9. Shyam deposits Rs 5000 every year for next 3 years at 6% semiannual compounding . Calculate the future value if investment? Future value annuity factor at 3% for 3years and 6 years is 3.0909 & 6.4684 respectively and at 6% for 3years and 6 years is 3.1836 & 6.9753 respectively.

• 15454.5
• 16171
• 15918
• 17438.25

10. Discounted payback period is considered an improvement over payback period because it considers.

• All cash-flows
• Time Value of Money
• Easy to understand
• All of the above

11. For a firm, weight of equity & debt is 0.6 & 0.4 respectively and cost of equity is 15%, Cost of debt is 9%, tax rate is 30%. Calculate the WACC for the firm?

• 0.126
• 0.1152
• 0.12
• 0.084

12. As per :MM proposition without taxes, value of firm is ____ by changing the capital structure?

• affected
• not affected
• increases
• decreases

13. Which of the following method is considered the best evaluation techniques for Long-term investment decisions?

• NPV
• IRR
• Pay-Back Period
• Profitability Index

14. If proportion of debt is increased in capital structure, overall cost of capital will ____?

• Decrease
• increase
• remain same
• fluctuate

15. The risk which can be reduced by diversification is known as_____ ?

• Systematic Risk
• Unsystematic Risk
• Total Risk
• Market Risk

16. If business risk of a company goes up than price of stock will.

• decrease
• increase
• remain same
• fluctuate

17. Moon Ltd invests Rs 800000 in a paper manufacturing plant This is expected to generate Rs 150000 every year for next seven years. Cost of capital for the project is 10%. PVAF for 7 years at 10% is 5.3349. Calculate the NPV of the project?

• 800000
• 800235
• 235
• -235

18. In ABC classification of inventory, maximum attention has to be paid on _____ items?

• A category
• B category
• C category
• All of them

19. The internal rate of return generated by an fixed income investment, if held till maturity is known as

• Current Yield
• YTM
• Yield Curve
• Coupon rate

20. Dividend declared at 12% means that this % age will be applied on _____ ?

• Issue Price
• Market Price
• Face Value
• Profits

21. When interest rates on long term bonds are higher than short term bonds, yield curve will be. ____ ?

• upward slopping
• downward slopping
• flat
• none of the above

22. Dividend payment linked to profits left-out after meeting the expansion needs is based on ___ theory/policy?

• Signaling Theory
• Residual payout policy
• Stable Dividend policy
• Constant pay-out policy

23. Sheela needs Rs 100000 at the end of each year in the next 5 years. How much amount she should invest now @ 10%. Present Value of annuity factor at 10% for 5 years is 3.7908

• 131898.28
• 500000
• 100000
• 379080

24. The cashflows invested in a project at t=O period is known as_________.

• Initial Cash Flows
• Operating Cash Flows
• Terminal Cash Flows
• Regular Cash Flows

25. If  growth rate of expected earnings goes up than price of stock will_____ .

• decrease
• increase
• remain same
• fluctuate

26. In case of share buy-back, number of outstanding share will_____.

• reduce
• increase
• remain same
• unaffected

27. A stock's average return in last 3 years were 12% and Standard deviation is 8%. Calculate the coefficient of variation?

• 1.5
• 0.33
• 0.67
• 9.6

28. _____ method tells the period in which original investment in a project will be recovered.

• NPV
• IRR
• Pay-Back Period
• Profitability Index

29. After the 2 for 1 share split number of shares will_____?

• remain same
• reduce
• be half
• double

30. If credit sales is 100000, credit period is 30 days, calculate the average receivables?

• 8219
• 8333
• 3333
• 3288

TEST -1 ( 2019)

Q1. Inwhich of the following form of business, income is taxed separately from its owners

• Sole Proprietorship
• Partnership
• Corporation
• All of the above

2. The Share Capital of a company is Rs I 0 Cr divided in I 0 Lac number of shares. Calculate the face value of share

• Rs 100
• Rs 1000
• Rs O
• Rs l

3. Which of the following is an operating item?

• Interest paid
• salary paid
• dividend received
• share capital issued

4. Proceeds on the sale of fixed assets will be shown in which part of the cash flow statement, if indirect method is followed.

• Operating Cash Flow
• Financing Cash Flow
• Investing Cash Flow
• None of the above
• 5.wich of the following statement shows the Net Profit/Loss earned by a business entity?
• Income Statement
• Balance  Sheet
• Trial Balance
• Cash Flow Statement

6. A credit sale of goods to Mohan should be credited to

• Sales accowit
• Mohan accowit
• Goods accowit
• Purchase accowit

7. Both assets and owner 's equity would be increased by             

• capital brought in
• Purchase of an asset on credit.
• Payment of creditors.
• Proprietors drawings

8. There was a fire in M Ltd Godown.It resulted into loss of Rs 5 Cr goods. However, the insurance company accepted the claim of Rs 4.5 Cr only. This will result in         in equity by Rs  

• Increase, 4.5 Cr
• Decrease, 0.5 Cr
• Increase, 0.5 Cr
• Decrease, 5 Cr

9. A business has paid the rent for the period Jan-March 2016 in Jwie'2016, in which year financial statements this rent expenses will be recorded?

• 2015
• 2016
• 2017
• All of the above

10. Inwhich of the following firm structure liability of owners is wilimited

• Sole   Proprietorship
• Ltd Liability Partnership
• Pvt. Ltd Company
• Public Ltd Company

11. While preparing cash flow statements, the repayments of a loan during the year should be included wider the heading of.

• Operating Cash Flow
• Financing Cash Flow
• Investing Cash Flow
• None of the above

12. Inwhich of the following books, taransactions are first time recorded?

• Ledger
• Accowiting Equation
• Trial Balance
• Journal

13. The balance of cash account indicates _          _

• Net income for the period
• Net loss for the period
• Net cash on hand
• Net worth of the business

14.          Every accounting transaction must at least affect               account?

• One
• Two
• Three
• Four

15. On 1st April 2017 P Ltd sells 100000 shares of Dabur India Ltd to Q Ltd at Rs 400 per share (Market price on that day) with an agreement to repurchase the same at Rs 4 12 per share on 31st Dec 2017. How the transaction should be presented in financial statements of P Ltd

• Sale of Investment
• Sale of Shares
• Borrowings
• Investment

16.          Advance from Customers is an example of            ?

• Asset
• Liability
• income
• Expense

17. Which of the following self-generated intangible asset can be recorded in books of account

• Goodwill
• Technical Know-How
• Software
• All of the Above

18. Inwhich of the following statement, final balances of all the account are prepared in the form of a list

• Ledger
• Accounting Equation
• Trial Balance
• Journal

19. Wages paid to workers must be debited to account

• Wages
• Machinery
• Factiry Expenses
• Office Expenses

20. Which of the following can be categorized as discretionary Expense

• Purchase
• Salary
• Repair & Maintenance
• R&D Expense

21. Higher Debt-Equity ratio indicates

• High Operating Risk
• Low Operating Risk
• High Financial Risk
• Low Financial Risk

22. When a Liability is increased, it is recorded on the

• Credit Side
• Debit Side
• Left Hand Side
• Any of the above

23           Ram's account in the accounts  payable ledger has a Rs.2000 beginning balance. After a transaction for Rs.500 is posted from the purchases journal, the balance in Ram's account is       __

• 1500 Credit
• 1500 Debit
• 2500 Credit
• 2500 Debit

24. Which of the following measure will be used for calculation of Inventory Turnover Ratio

• Net Sales
• Credit Sales
• Cost of Goods Sold
• Cos of Sales

25. Credit sales for the year is Rs I 00000 and closing debtors are Rs I 0000. Calculate the collection period of the firm?

• 10 days
• 36.5 days
• 27.39     days
• None of the above

26. Loss on the sale of Fixed Assets will be shown in which part of the cash flow statement, if indirect method is followed?

• Operating Cash Flow
• Financing Cash Flow
• Investing Cash Flow
• None of the above

27. Which of the following can be categorized as Revenue

• Sale of goods
• Sale of Old Furniture
• Dividend Received
• All of the above

28. Inwhich of the following firm structure compliance cost is maximum

• Sole Proprietorship
• Ltd Liability Partnership
• Pvt. Ltd Company
• Public Ltd Company

29. In order to reflect the efficiency in debtor's management, Debtor turnover ratio should be.    ?

• increased
• Decreased
• Kept Constant
• None of the above

30. Purchase of machinery against issue of shares will be shown in which part of the cash flow statement?

• Operating Cash Flow
• Financing Cash Flow
• Investing Cash Flow
• None of the above

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QTMC 522       (2019)

Assignment Set – 1

1. The variance of a population is known to be 400. At 95% confidence, the margin of error will be

• 92 or less
• 4 or less
• 2 or less
• 29 or less

1. The p-value

• is the same as the Z statistic
• is a distance
• is a probability
• measures the number of standard deviations from the mean

1. In a cumulative relative frequency distribution, the last class will have a cumulative relative frequency equal to

• zero
• the total number of elements in the data set
• one
• 100

1. In hypothesis testing if the null hypothesis is rejected,

• the sample size has been too small
• the alternative hypothesis is true
• the data must have been accumulated incorrectly
• no conclusions can be drawn from the test

1. In hypothesis testing, the tentative assumption about the population parameter is

• either the null or the alternative
• None of these alternatives is correct.
• the alternative hypothesis
• the null hypothesis

1. In determining the sample size necessary to estimate a population proportion, which of the following information is not needed?

• the maximum margin of error that can be tolerated
• a preliminary estimate of the true population proportion P
• the confidence level required
• the mean of the population

1. For which of the following values of P is the value of P(I - P) maximized?

• P = 0.99
• P = 0.50
• P = 0.01
• P = 0.90

1. A 95% confidence interval for a population mean is determined to be 100 to 120. If the confidence coefficient is reduced to 0.90, the interval for µ

• becomes 0.1
• does not change
• becomes wider
• becomes narrower

1. In a random sample of 100 observations, P = 0.2. The 95.44% confidence interval for P is

• 120 to 0.280
• 134 to 0.266
• 164 to 0.236
• 122 to 0.278

1. In general, higher confidence levels provide

• narrower confidence intervals
• a smaller standard error
• wider confidence intervals
• unbiased estimates

1. The level of significance in hypothesis testing is the probability of

• None of these alternatives is correct.
• rejecting a true null hypothesis
• accepting a true null hypothesis
• accepting a false null hypothesis

1. As the number of degrees of freedom for a t distribution increases, the difference between the t distribution and the standard normal distribution

• becomes larger
• becomes smaller
• None of the above answers is correct.
• stays the same

1. In constructing a frequency distribution, as the number of classes are decreased, the class width

• remains unchanged
• decreases
• can increase or decrease depending on the data values
• increases

1. A tabular method that can be used to summarize the data on two variables simultaneously is called:

• an o give
• crosstabulation
• a histogram
• simultaneous equations

1. The absolute value of the difference between the point estimate and the population parameter it estimates is the

• precision
• error of confidence
• sampling error
• standard error

1. If we change a 95% confidence interval estimate to a 99% confidence interval estimate, we can expect

• the size of the confidence interval to increase
• the size of the confidence interval to decrease
• the size of the confidence interval to remain the same
• the sample size to increase

1. A cumulative relative frequency distribution shows

• the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
• the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
• the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
• the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class

1. The t value with a 95% confidence and 24 degrees of freedom is

• 069
• 064
• 492
• 711

1. The sum of frequencies for all classes will always equal

• 1
• the number of classes
• the number of elements in a data set
• a value between 0 and 1

1. A researcher is gathering data from four geographical areas designated: South = 1; North = 2; East = 3; Vest = 4. The designated geographical regions represent

• either quantitative or qualitative data
• label data
• quantitative data
• qualitative data

1. In a cumulative percent frequency distribution, the last class will have a cumulative percent frequency equal to

• 100
• 1
• the total number of elements in the data set
• one

1. The ability of an interval estimate to contain the value of the population parameter is described by the

• degrees of freedom
• confidence level
• precise value of thepopulation mean m
• None of the above answers is correct.

1. If several frequency distributions are constructed from the same data set, the distribution with the widest class width will have the

• none of these
• most classes
• fewest classes
• same number of classes as the other distributions since all are constructed from the same data

1. An estimate of a population parameter that provides an interval of values believed to contain the value of the parameter is known as the

• interval estimate
• confidence level
• population estimate
• parameter value

1. The sum of the relative frequencies for all classes will always equal

• any value larger than one
• the number of classes
• the sample size
• one

1. A frequency distribution is a tabular summary of data showing the

• percentage of items in several classes
• fraction of items in several classes
• number of items in several classes
• relative percentage of items in several classes

1. In order to estimate the average time spent on the computer terminals per student at a local university, data were collected for a sample of 81 business students over a one week period Assume the population standard deviation is 1.2 hours. The standard error of the mean is

• 16
• 5
• 133
• 014

1. Whenever the population standard deviation is unknown and the population has a normal or near-normal distribution, which distribution is used in developing an interval estimation?

• z distribution
• standard distribution
• beta distribution
• t distribution

1. Fifteen percent of the students in a school of Business Administration are majoring in Economics, 20% in Finance, 35% in Management, and 30% in Accounting. The graphical device(s) which can be used to present these data is (are)

• only a pie chart
• a line graph
• both a bar graph and a pie chart
• only a bar graph

1. The confidence associated with an interval estimate is called the

• significance
• confidence level
• precision
• degree of association

Assignment Set – 2

1. A histogram is said to be skewed to the left if it has a

• longer tail to the right
• shorter tail to the right
• longer tail to the left
• shorter tail to the left

1. A cumulative relative frequency distribution shows

• The proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
• the proportion of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class
• the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the upper limit of each class
• the percentage of data items with values less than or equal to the lower limit of each class

1. A researcher is gathering data from four geographical areas designated :South = I; North = 2; East = 3; West = 4. The designated geographical regions represent

• either quantitative or qualitative data
• qualitative data
• quantitative data
• label data

1. A frequency distribution is a tabular summary of data showing the

• fraction of items in several classes
• relative percentage of items in several classes
• percentage of items in several classes
• number of items in several classes

1. When the level of confidence increases, the confidence interval

• stays the same
• becomes narrower
• becomes wider
• cannot tell from the information given

1. The most common graphical presentation of quantitative data is a

• relative frequency
• pie chart
• bar graph
• histogram

1. A frequency distribution is

• a tabular summary of a set of data showing the frequency of items in each of several nonoverlapping classes
• a tabular summary of a set of data showing the relative frequency
• a graphical device for presenting qualitative data
• a graphical form of representing data

1. The confidence associated with an interval estimate is called the

• significance
• confidence level
• precision
• degree of association

1. The p-value

• measures the number of standard deviations from the mean
• is the same as the Z statistic
• is a distance
• is a probability

1. In constructing a frequency distribution, as the number of classes are decreased, the class width

• can increase or decrease depending on the data values
• remains unchanged
• decreases
• increases

1. We are interested in conducting a study in order to determine what percentage of voters of a state would vote for the incumbent governor. What is the minimum size sample needed to estimate the population proportion with a margin of error of 0.05 or less at 95% confidence?

• 100
• 200
• 196
• 58

1. In a random sample of 100 observations, P = 0.2. The 95.44% confidence interval for P is

• 120 to 0.280
• 134 to 0.266
• 122 to 0.278
• 164 to 0.236

1. An estimate of a population parameter that provides an interval of values believed to contain the value of the parameter is known as the

• confidence level
• population estimate
• interval estimate
• parameter value

1. The difference between the point estimate, such as the sample mean, and the value of the population parameter it estimates, such as the population mean, is known as the

• confidence level
• interval estimate
• parameter estimate
• sampling error

1. Whenever using the t distribution in estimation, we must assume that

• the sampling distribution is approximately normal
• the finite population correction factor is necessary
• the population is approximately normal
• the sample size is at least 30

1. The difference between the lower class limits of adjacent classes provides the

• class midpoint
• class width
• class limits
• number of classes

1. If a hypothesis is rejected at the 5% level of significance, it

• Will never be tested at the 1%level
• may be rejected or not rejected at the 1% level
• will always be accepted at the 1% level
• will always be rejected at the 1% level

1. For which of the following values of P is the value of P(I - P) maximized?

• P = 0.01
• P = 0.99
• P = 0.50
• P = 0.90

1. A probability statement about the sampling error is known as the

• precision
• confidence
• interval
• error

1. In general, higher confidence levels provide

• a smaller standard error
• wider confidence intervals
• unbiased estimates
• narrower confidence intervals

1. In hypothesis testing if the null hypothesis is rejected,

• the sample size has been too small
• no conclusions can be drawn from the test
• the data must have been accumulated incorrectly
• the alternative hypothesis is true

1. Qualitative data can be graphically represented by using a(n)

• bar graph
• frequency polygon
• histogram
• o give

1. The t value with a 95% confidence and 24 degrees of freedom is

• 711
• 069
• 492
• 064

1. A 95% confidence interval for a population mean is determined to be 100 to 120. If the confidence coefficient is reduced to 0.90, the interval for µ

• becomes 0.1
• becomes wider
• does not change
• becomes narrower

1. An interval estimate is a range of values used to estimate

• a sample statistic
• a population parameter
• the shape of the population's distribution
• the sampling distribution

1. After computing a confidence interval, the user believes the results are meaningless because the width of the interval is too large. Which one of the following is the best recommendation?

• Discard the current data and try a different sample.
• Increase the level of confidence for the interval.
• Reduce the population variance.
• Increase the sample size.

1. In hypothesis testing, the tentative assumption about the population parameter is

• the null hypothesis
• the alternative hypothesis
• either the null or the alternative
• None of these alternatives is correct.

1. A situation in which conclusions based upon aggregated cross tabulation are different from unaggregated crosstabulation is known as

• Simpson's rule
• wrong crosstabulation
• Simpson's paradox
• aggregated crosstabulation

1. The sum of the relative frequencies for all classes will always equal

• any value larger than one
• the sample size
• one
• the number of classes

1. As the sample size increases, the sampling error

• increases
• None of the above answers is correct.
• decreases
• stays the same

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Assignment – 1

1. The first discipline to take the modem corporation as the unit of analysis and emphasize the design, implementation, and coordination of various administrative and organization systems was:

• anthropology
• psychology
• management
• sociology

2. Employee loyalty toward the organization is a significant factor in:

• job displacement
• employee turnover
• continuance commitment
• affective commitment

3. Individuals who make external attributions will be more likely to

• develop feelings of incompetence which may lead to depression
• provide a supporting environment for followers
• rarely quit because they do not feel responsible
• achieve higher levels of performance

4. The motivation theory that holds that employee motivation is determined by the belief that a valued outcome will result from effort is called:

• goal-setting theory
• equity theory
• two-factor theory
• expectancy theory

5. A technique that is valuable in its ability to generate a number of independent judgments without the requirement of a face-to-face meeting is:

• the nominal group technique
• brainstorming
• dialectical inquiry
• the Delphi technique

6. The JDI measures:

• employee absenteeism
• attitude specificity
• job satisfaction
• job performance

7. Which of the following is considered a key benefit of diversity?

• less thinking that is considered critical
• less time in making decisions
• flexibility and adaptation
• cohesiveness

8. Attribution theory helps to______ behavior in organizations

• observe
• explain causes of
• specify correct or appropriate
• measure

9. As a member of a study group, you feel that others are making minimal contributions. In this situation you are LEAST likely to:

• reduce your contribution
• increase your participation and contribution
• withdraw from the group
• praise the inputs of others

10. If a manager asks an employee to purchase a gift for his wife, the employee would think this request:

• falls within his zone of indifference
• falls outside his zone of indifference
• should be based on the manager's authority base
• is in conflict with the employee’s value system

11. The dynamic process through which the emotions are transferred from one person to another is called

• none of these
• Emotional Quotient
• emotional adaptability
• emotional contagion

12. According to the Protestant ethic, a person should work hard because hard work and prosperity would lead to a place in heaven. The organizational scholar who advanced the Protestant Ethic notion was:

• Adam Smith
• John Calvin
• Sigmund Freud
• Max Weber

13. Modern  management practices such as employee management recognition programs, flexible benefit packages, and stock ownership plans emphasize:

• psychodynamic  theory
• intrinsic motivation
• external incentives
• internal needs

14. The primacy effect is also known as:

• selective perception
• first-impression error
• a stereotype
• self-fulfilling  prophecy

15. Values reflected in the way individuals actually behave are called:

• enacted values
• behavioral values
• observable values
• enduring values

16. The fit perspective is useful in explaining:

• why managers make better decisions
• long-term performance
• how firms can adapt to environmental change
• short-term performance

17. The web like structures that contract some or all of their operating functions to other organisations and then coordinate their activities through managers and other employees at their headquarters are called

• Virtual Organisation
• Circle Organisation
• Networked  Organisation
• Traditional Organisation

18. According to the group development model, which of the following set of issues need to be addressed as part of a group's authority issues?

• expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and management of power and influence
• who is in charge, management of power and influence, and security
• expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and who has the right to tell whom to do what
• who is in charge, management of power and influence, and who has the right to tell whom to do what

19. In research on styles of conflict management, the ____ style was least effective.

• collaborating
• avoiding
• competing
• compromising

20. The impoverished manager is one who:

• emphasizes efficient production.
• exerts just enough effort to avoid being fired.
• creates a happy, comfortable work environment.
• maintains the status quo.

21. The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:

• cohesiveness
• mutual acceptance
• control and sanctions
• status structure

22. Crude comments or sexual jokes and behaviors that disparage someone's sex or convey hostility is considered which type of sexual harassment?

• sexual coercion
• sexual abuse
• exploitation
• gender harassment

23. Emotional intelligence (EI) relates to the ability to manage

• conflict
• Intelligence Quotient
• conceptual skills
• technical skills

24. The Leadership and Strategy Council (LSC) is a feature of

• Circle Organisation
• Virtual Organisation
• Traditional Organisation
• Networked Organisation

25. The establishment of new attitudes, values, and behaviors as the new status quo is consistent with what stage in Lewin's change model?

• change
• moving
• unfreezing
• refreezing

26. An ethical theory that emphasizes the nature and characteristics of an act is:

• consequence-based
• cultural based
• motive-based
• rule-based

27. Which of the following is a characteristic of quality teams?

• They emphasize the generation of ideas.
• They provide advice to managers who still retain decision-making authority.
• They operate in parallel fashion to the organization's structure.
• They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality.

28. Which of the following statements is most correct?

• Locus of control has little to do with ethical behavior.
• Persons with an internal locus of control make more ethical decisions than others.
• Other people control persons who are strong on internal locus of control.
• Individuals with an internal locus of control are more likely to exhibit uncontrollable behavior.

29. Group polarization results in:

• group members driving decisions toward consensus
• group members moving from extreme attitudes toward more moderate attitudes
• the tendency for group discussion to produce shifts toward more extreme attitudes among members
• the tendency for group members who were initially more cautious to become significantly less cautious

30. The study of individual behavior and group dynamics in organizational settings describes the content of study in:

• organization theory
• organization design
• organizational behavior
• organizational development

Assignment – 2

1. A "wild turkey' in the top management team is:

• one who increases the homogeneity within the executive group
• a member of the executive team that retards the executive teams performance
• someone who is uncontrollable
• a devil's advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of quality teams?

• They operate in parallel fashion to the organization's structure.
• They emphasize the generation of ideas.
• They provide advice to managers who still retain decision-making authority.
• They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality

3. Which of the following is considered a key benefit of diversity?

• cohesiveness
• less time in making decisions
• less thinking that is considered critical
• flexibility and adaptation

4. According to the MBTI a successful top executive is likely to be a/an:

• extrovert, sensor, thinker, and judger
• introvert, sensor, thinker, and perceiver
• introvert, intuitor, feeler, and perceiver
• extrovert, intuitor, feeler, and judger

5. Which of the following conditions would LEAST encourage political activity?

• uncertainty
• performance appraisal process
• abundant resources
• unclear goals

6. The conflict that develops when a role behavior clashes with individual values is called:

• intrarole
• interrole
• interpersonal
• person-role

7. The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:

• status structure
• control and sanctions
• mutual acceptance
• cohesiveness

8. Increasing workforce diversity is likely to reduce ___ as a barrier to social perception.

• first-impression error
• selective perception
• stereotyping
• the primacy effect

9. Denise and Teresa are two students in a course on organizational behavior . Denise outperforms Teresa on the first exam in OB, and Teresa convinces herself that Denise is not really a good person to compare herself to because Denise is a psychology major and Teresa is majoring in accounting . Which of the following is the best explanation for Teresa's reaction?

• Teresa probably has an inflated generalized belief of her capabilities.
• Teresa's high self-esteem is protecting her from this unfavorable comparison.
• Teresa has an external locus of control.
• Teresa is a low self-monitor.

10. The dynamic process through which the emotions are transferred from one person to another is called

• none of these
• emotional adaptability
• emotional contagion
• Emotional Quotient

11. The type of organizational commitment that is based on an individual's perceived obligation to remain in an organization is called:

• affective commitment
• attitudinal commitment
• normative commitment
• intentional commitment

12. At what stage of group development is the leader 's role primarily one of recognition of the group's achievements?

• performing
• forming
• norming
• storming

13. The primacy effect is also known as:

• selective perception
• first-impression error
• a stereotype
• self-fulfilling  prophecy

14. The close linkage of ____ to performance wider expectancy theory is crucial for enhancing motivation.

• instrumentality
• likelihood
• valence
• need satisfaction

15. The two sets of social benefits available to team or group members includes:

• recognition and integrated involvement
• psychological intimacy and recognition
• psychological intimacy and integrated involvement
• integrated involvement and achievement

16. A transnational organization is one where:

• a prevalent ethnic viewpoint begins to be held strongly in the consciousness of managers
• the global viewpoint supersedes national issues
• the global and national interests are linked in an overriding perspective
• an organization's nationality is held strongly in the consciousness of managers even though the organization competes on a global scale

17. In the case of repeated failure wider expectancy theory, an employee may:

• greatly increase input
• increase effort when the likelihood of reward has dropped
• raise outcome valence
• reduce effort

18. If a manager asks an employee to purchase a gift for his wife, the employee would think this request:

• falls outside his zone of indifference
• should be based on the manager's authority base
• is in conflict with the employee’s value system
• falls within his zone of indifference

19. Authentic leaders are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

• benevolence
• optimism
• resilience
• high levels of hope

20. According to the Protestant ethic, a person should work hard because hard work and prosperity would lead to a place in heaven. The organizational scholar who advanced the Protestant Ethic notion was:

• Max Weber
• Sigmund Freud
• John Calvin
• Adam Smith

21. Instrumental values includes

• honesty
• all of these
• ambition
• self sufficiency

22. The development of group cohesiveness is negatively influenced by:

• external pressure
• prestige of the group
• group size when there are only five to eight members
• internal competition

23. Upper echelon theory argues that:

• wild turkeys will have a detrimental effect on organizational performance
• turnover at the top becomes a vicious cycle
• characteristics of the top management team can predict organizational characteristics
• executive turnover will usually result in declining organizational performance

24. Group polarization results in:

• group members moving from extreme attitudes toward more moderate attitudes
• the tendency for group discussion to produce shifts toward more extreme attitudes among members
• the tendency for group members who were initially more cautious to become significantly less cautious
• group members driving decisions toward consensus

25. A key understanding to the relationship between hygiene and motivation factors is:

• they are additive
• they are positively related
• they are interdependent
• they are independent

26. The importance and value placed on a reward in expectancy theory is known as:

• instrumentality
• need satisfaction
• likelihood
• valence

27. Corporations and business enterprises tend to subscribe to:

• rule-based ethics
• consequential ethics
• cultural relativism
• universal moralism

28. An ethical theory that emphasizes the nature and characteristics of an act is:

• motive-based
• rule-based
• cultural based
• consequence-based

29. Equity theory is a/an:

• need approach to motivation
• process approach to motivation
• external approach to motivation
• content motivation model

30. The belief that performance is connected to rewards is known as:

• probability or likelihood
• expectancy
• valence
• instrumentality

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ITSC 525

Set – 1  (2019)

1. In its simplest form, a system consists of all the following except

• A group of cooperative users
• A set of interrelated components
• A clearly defined boundary
• A common set of objectives

2. A(n) _____________ is a Web-based interface and integration of MIS, DSS, EIS, and other technologies that gives all intranet users and selected extranet users access to a variety of internal and external business applications and services.

• enterprise Resource System
• enterprise Information Portal
• executive Information System
• collaborative Information System

3. Which of the following is a competitive strategy?

• New entries into the market
• Innovation
• Bargaining power
• Substitutes

4. Which one of the following should be used to answer the question, "What would happen to sales if we cut advertising by 25 percent?"

• Goal-seeking
• Optimization
• Sensitivity
• What-if

5. Decision support in business is changing, driven by all of the following except:

• Changing corporate spending patterns
• Rapid developments in end user computing and networking
• Internet and Web technologies
• Web-enabled business applications

6. The information products from an MIS take all the following forms except

• scheduled reports.
• exception reports.
• push reports.
• pull reports.

7. Many companies are using GIS technology along with global positioning system devices to do all of the following except:

• Map customer traffic patterns within each store
• Choose new retail store locations
• Optimize distribution routes
• Analyze the demographics of their target audiences

8. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the form dimension of information?

• Information is based on past, present, or future time periods.
• Information is arranged in a predetermined sequence.
• All the information needed is provided.
• The information can have a broad or narrow scope, or an internal or external focus.

9. Decision support systems use _____ to support the making of semi-structured business decisions.

• Analytical models
• specialized databases
• a decision maker's own insights and judgments
• All of the choices are correct.

10. The rapid development of microcomputer processing power, application software packages, and telecommunications networks gave birth to the phenomenon of ______ .

• manufacturer-to-public direct sales
• MIS departments
• End user computing
• electronic monitoring

11. Decisions made at the tactical management level tend to be more:

• Structured
• Semi-structured
• Unstructured
• Self-structured

12. Using a decision support system involves all of the following types of analytical modeling activities except____ analysis.

• sensitivity
• exception
• what-if
• goal-seeking

13. Instead of focusing on the information processing requirements of business functions, enterprise software focuses on supporting integrated clusters of ______ involved in the operations of a business.

• application software
• business processes
• customer relationships
• all of the choices are correct.

14. _______ is an example of an unstructured, operational management decision.

• Cash management
• Program control
• Product planning
• Capital budgeting

15. A strategic information system can be any kind of information system that uses information technology to help an organization ____________ .

• gain a competitive advantage
• reduce a competitive disadvantage
• meet strategic enterprise objectives
• all of the choices are correct

16. _____ is defined as the use of the Internet and other networks and information technologies to support electronic commerce, enterprise communication and collaboration, and Web-enabled business processes, both within a networked enterprise and with customers and business partners.

• Electronic business
• Enterprise collaboration
• Cross-functional system management
• Supply chain management

17. Deciding what product lines to develop over the next five years is an example of a(n)____ decision.

• Structured
• Semi-structured
• Unstructured
• open-ended

18. Which of the following is one of the most common and useful types of data mining for marketing?

• Goal seeking analysis
• Market basket analysis
• Optimization analysis
• Sensitivity analysis

19. All the following are competitive strategies except

• New entries into the market
• Innovation
• Cost leadership
• Alliances

20. Becoming a low-cost producer of products and services in an industry is an example of a(n):

• Cost leadership strategy
• Differentiation strategy
• Innovation strategy
• Growth strategy

21. Internal enterprise information portal applications typically include access to all of the following except:

• E-mail and project websites
• Human resource Web self- service
• Internet news services
• Corporate database

22. Which of the following is a competitive force in the marketplace?

• Cost leadership
• Competition
• Differentiation
• Alliances

23. All of the following can be used to counter competitive forces in the marketplace except:

• Alliances
• Growth
• Innovation
• Bargaining

24. A weekly sales report is a typical example of a(n) _____ report.

• periodic scheduled
• exception
• demand
• action

25. ____ is an example of a structured, tactical management decision

• Program control
• Employee performance appraisal
• Credit management
• Company  reorganization

26. How do information systems aid in decision making?

• Information systems help companies determine investments.
• Information systems help companies determine which products to sell or discontinue.
• Information systems can be used to gain competitive advantage.
• All of the choices are correct.

27. The expanding role of information systems from the 1950s to the present, in sequential order, are:

• Management reporting, decision support, electronic business and commerce, data processing, strategic and end user support
• Data processing, management reporting, strategic and end user support, electronic business and commerce, decision support
• Data processing, management reporting, decision support, strategic and end user support, electronic business and commerce
• Electronic business and commerce, management reporting, data processing, strategic and end user support, decision support

28. A(n) _______ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm develops unique products or services from those of its competitors, or makes radical business changes that may alter the fundamental nature of the industry.

• alliance
• growth
• differentiation
• innovation

29. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the operational level of management?

• Composed of a board of directors and an executive committee of the CEO and top executives who develop overall organizational goals, strategies, policies, and objectives as part of a strategic planning process
• Composed of self-directed teams and middle managers, who develop short-and medium-range plans, schedules, and budgets
• Composed of self-directed teams or supervisory managers who develop short-range plans, according to procedures and within the budgets and schedules established for the teams and other workgroups of the organization
• None of the choices are correct.

30. A(n) _____ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm seeks to become a low-cost producer of products and services in the industry.

• low  cost  leadership
• differentiation
• innovation
• alliance

Set – 2

1. Dell, Wal-Mart, and Amazon are a few of the companies using ____ DSS models to stimulate and optimize supply chain flow and reduce inventory levels.

• pricing
• product and service quality
• financial performance
• supply chain

2. Investments in information technology that build valuable new relationships allow a firm to:

• Lock in the supplier
• Lock in the customer
• Lock out competition
• All the above

3. _____ analysis is a more complex form of goal-seeking where the goal is to find the best value for a target variable given certain constraints.

• What-if
• Sensitivity
• Market basket
• Optimization

4. All of the following are attributes of intelligent behavior that AI attempts to duplicate except:

• Reasoning and learning
• Emotion
• Problem solving
• Responding quickly and successfully to new situations

5. All of the following are competitive forces in the marketplace except

• Alliances
• Competition
• Substitutes
• Bargaining

6. Artificial intelligence is a science and technology based on:

• Computer science
• Biology and psychology
• Linguistics and mathematics
• All of the choices are correct

7. ____ is an example of an unstructured, operational management decision.

• Cash management
• Program control
• Product planning
• Capital budgeting

8. The expanding role of information systems from the 1950s to the present, in sequential order, are:

• Management reporting, decision support, electronic business and commerce, data processing, strategic and end user support
• Data processing, management reporting, strategic and end user support, electronic business and commerce, decision support
• Data processing, management reporting, decision support, strategic and end user support, electronic business and commerce
• Electronic business and commerce, management reporting, data processing, strategic and end user support, decision support

9. All the following are competitive strategies except

• New entries into the market
• Innovation
• Cost leadership
• Alliances

10. Many companies are using GIS technology along with global positioning system devices to do all of the following except:

• Map customer traffic patterns within each store
• Choose new retail store locations
• Optimize distribution routes
• Analyze the demographics of their target audiences

11. A major freight company has several thousand drivers. A report containing information about only those company drivers who have not taken a mandatory defensive driving course is an example of a(n)   _____  report.

• periodic scheduled
• exception
• demand
• action

12. A firm can survive and succeed in the long nm if it successfully develops strategies to confront the _____ that shape the structure of competition in its industry.

• technological innovations
• competitive  business processes
• competitive forces
• competitive strategies

13. Which of the following is an example of an unstructured data source?

• ERP database
• CRM database
• Other databases
• E-mail

14. A weekly sales report is a typical example of a(n) ___ report.

• periodic scheduled
• exception
• demand
• action

15. Deciding what products lines to develop over the next five years is an example of a(n) ____ decision.

• Structured
• Semi-structured
• Unstructured
• Open-ended

16. _____ is an example of a structured, tactical management decision.

• Program control
• Employee performance appraisal
• Credit management
• Company reorganization

17. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the form dimension of information?

• Information is based on past, present, or future time periods.
• Information is arranged in a predetermined sequence.
• All the information needed is provided.
• The information can have a broad or narrow scope, or an internal or external focus.

18. With ___ , data about sales offices can be rolled up to the district level, and district-level data can be rolled up to provide a regional-level perspective.

• consolidation
• drill-down
• filtration
• slicing and dicing

19. AI applications can be grouped wider all of the following areas except:

• Cognitive science
• Robotics
• Natural interfaces
• Linguistics

20. A(n) _____ strategy is a competitive strategy by which a firm significantly expands its capacity to produce goods and services, expanding and diversifying in the market

• alliance
• growth
• differentiation
• innovation

21. By targeting customers who are already known to be likely buyers, the effectiveness of a given marketing effort is significantly increased-if the marketing takes the form of  ______            

• in-store displays
• catalogs
• a direct offer
• The form of the marketing does not matter.

22. Networked enterprises view _____ systems as a strategic way to use IT to decentralize information resources.

• Electronic business
• enterprise collaboration
• Cross-functional system management
• Supply chain management

23. How do information systems aid in decision making?

• Information systems help companies determine investments.
• Information systems help companies determine which products to sell or discontinue.
• Information systems can be used to gain competitive advantage.
• All of the choices are correct.

24. The type of information required by decision makers in a company is directly related to the level of management decision making and the amount of ____ in the decision situations they face.

• financial risk
• structure
• variable information
• urgency

25. All the following are examples of an information system, except

• A paper-based accounting ledger
• A cash register
• A group of marbles in a box
• A paper-based accounting ledger

26. Becoming a low-cost producer of products and services in an industry is an example of a(n):

• Cost leadership strategy
• Differentiation strategy
• Innovation strategy
• Growth strategy

27. ______ is defined as the use of the Internet and other networks and information technologies to support electronic commerce, enterprise communication and collaboration, and Web-enabled business processes, both within a networked enterprise and with customers and business partners.

• Electronic business
• Enterprise collaboration
• Cross-functional system management
• Supply chain management

28. Decisions made at the tactical management level tend to be more:

• Structured
• Semi-structured
• Unstructured
• Self-structured

29. According to the text, most retail stores today use computer -based information systems to support business processes and operations. This support falls broadly into the categories of.

• Business decisions and strategies for competitive advantage.
• Operations and support strategies.
• Business decisions and operations.
• Strategic business decisions and tactical business decisions.

30. Which of the following is a competitive force in the marketplace?

• Cost leadership
• Competition
• Differentiation
• Alliances

IMT Solved Assignment

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Contacts:

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infoguidetechs@gmail.com

+918800595644 also use for WhatsApp.