Advertising & Sales Management

Assignment A

1.         What discourages clients from hiring their own specialized experts instead of employing of full-service agency?

2.While adhering to the Prime Direction, what is the false assumption behind "targeted" advertising agencies only working on advertising for their demographic groups?

3.The communications model states that there must be an overlap in experiences between a communicator and audience. Yet "affluent, well paid, college educated, white collar job holding, largest cities living, relatively young people," the description of the typical mass communications managers, is not a description of the typical advertising audience members. If targeted agencies are unnecessary attempts to create overlap between communicators and audiences, how does being different from an audience not foreclose a person's ability to communicate with those people?

4.         What does an advertising/promotional planner sees as the primary purpose of the mass media?

5.Message strategy and tactics is known as the "creative function." Does this mean that successful and creative movie makers be given free rein to plan message strategy and write/ produce the resulting television commercials? Why or why not?

6.What is meant by the distinction between sales promotions moving the product toward the consumer while advertising moves the consumer toward the product and how does this distinction help guide determining the "value" of a planned sales promotions effort?

7.         How does a publicist measure his or her effectiveness in the job and how is this comparable to advertising time or space buyers' reach estimates?

8.What determines if communications strategy can make use of publicity as an effective sales tool? Explain.

Assignment B

Case Detail: 

Clutter has become synonymous with the advertising industry in recent times and this extends to all realms of marketing, offline and online. There is an increasing trend of being greeted with an explosive assortment of ads when one logs onto a website. These ads transcend genres of -commerce, consumer goods, tourism, hospitality, and more. While views on these ads may be relatively high, the recall seems to be questionable in many cases. In this scenario, tracing the consumer’s preferences for brand advertisements becomes extremely difficult.

Herein, we aim to address the simple question of how a brand must aspire to break clutter and switch to view ability of the content rather than served impressions, which has been the conventional way of running ads within the industry.

To transform the way ads have been programmed so far, one will need to pay close attention to the existing metrics and re-evaluate different brand strategies. The traditional route for marketers adopting online ads has been banners, images, audio, and video. The measurement was based on served impressions, i.e., the countable times that an advertisement gets fetched from the source, irrespective of whether it was clicked or not.

Viewable impressions, on the other hand, are measurable to a more accurate degree. For an impression to be counted as viewable, at least 50 percent of it must be visible to the user for a minimum of one second. This provides for ‘some versus no’ value, but does it justify the money spent behind it? According to a study conducted by ComScore, 54 percent of the display ads that are up on the website are actually not seen and this is despite the fact that some of them cost a lot.

It is implicit that advertisers would be interested in posts which guarantee a decidedly higher view ability, so publishers offering such inventory will be at an advantage too. There’s another bonus to this because measurable data of this sort will make it easier for rate comparison of different brands among multiple publishers. While served impressions have been working well towards adding higher numbers to charts and creating a presumption over the total awareness created through it, there are three primary concerns: If the targeted user leaves the page before it loads completely, he/she will miss the ad.

A lot of search and display ads are placed at the bottom of the webpage, so if the user does not scroll all the way down, it’s a lost cause for the advertiser.

If a proxy server, crawler or spider opens the page, there is no certain way to ascertain the measures. In order to ensure visibility and derive the right returns on your investments, you must plan your advertisements with the right placement and communication.

With advertisement forms rapidly evolving, your strategy is incomplete without researching what works for your target audience and delivering a customised plan of action. To break away for the clutter of advertisements and to ensure you receive eyeballs and recall, the right amount of innovation and creativity must be put in to produce content that goes a long way in giving you the right bang for your buck.

Question

1. How would you use advertising to break the clutter? What impact does clutter-free advertising play in increasing brand acceptance
2. What does the author mean by "To transform the way ads have been programmed so far, one will need to pay close attention to the existing metrics and re-evaluate different brand strategies"
3. Can you use clutter to your advantage? If yes, how? If No, why not? Support your answer with relevant examples.

Assignment C

Question No.  1          

Which of the following terms best fits the activity of marketing communications? 

 Options          

1. Making products available
2. Convenience of location
3. High level of regulation
4. Communication between stakeholders      

Question No.  2          

The marketing communications strategy of the marketing mix deals exclusively with         

Options          

1. personal selling and advertising
2. advertising and public relations
3. advertising, publicity, and pricing
4. personal selling, advertising, sales promotion, and public relations

 Question No.  3          

Organizations plan, design, implement, and evaluate their marketing communication activities. These activities involve the delivery of messages either to or with target audiences, through various communication tools and media. This is known as         

Options          

1. campaigns
2. personal selling
3. public relations
4. publicity

Question No.  4          

This is a hierarchy of effects or sequential model used to explain how advertising works:  

Options          

1. ADD
2. AIDA
3. PESTLE
4. SWOT

Question No.  5          

Marketing communications is used to achieve one of two principal goals. The first concerns the development of brand values. What is the other goal?

Options          

1. Increasing sales
2. Informing about products
3. Changing the behaviour of target audiences
4. Channelling communication tools

Question No.  6          

This is the sharing of meaning created through the transmission of information      

Options          

1. Communication
2. Noise
3. Transfer
4. Understanding

Question No.  7          

This is a series of economic transactions between parties, who have a long-term orientation towards, and are primarily motivated by, concern for each other:        

Options          

1. Partner exchanges
2. Collaborative exchanges
3. Co-operative transfer
4. Partner exchange

Question No.  8          

The role of marketing communications is to engage audiences and there are four main tasks that it can be used to complete. Which of the following is not part of the four main tasks?          

Options          

1. Differentiate
2. Participate
3. Reinforce
4. Inform

Question No.  9          

_____________is an important element in the communication process. It recognizes that successful communications are more likely to be achieved if the source and the receiver understand each other.           

Options          

1. The realm of understanding
2. Personal selling
3. Noise
4. Feedback

Question No.  10        

This is part of the communication process where receivers unpack the various components of the message, and begin to make sense and give the message meaning           

Options          

1. Encoding
2. Decoding
3. Transfer
4. Noise

Question No.  11        

This is a part of the communication process where the sender selects a combination of appropriate words, pictures, symbols and music to represent a message to be transmitted

Options          

1. Encoding
2. Decoding
3. Transfer
4. Feedback

Question No.  12        

This is part of the communication process and refers to the responses offered by receivers:           

Options          

1. Encoding
2. Decoding
3. Transfer
4. Feedback

Question No.  13         _______________ is concerned with the development of knowledge that is specific to the parties involved and is referred to as 'learning together'       

Options          

1. Dialogue
2. Personal influencer
3. Feedback
4. Message

Question No.  14        

This approach has been used to convey particular information and help educate large target audiences through television and radio programmes. This approach is referred to as:     

Options          

1. Opinion followers
2. Opinion formers
3. Public relations
4. Opinion leaders

Question No.  15        

AIDA stands for awareness, ________, desire and _________.      

Options          

1. interest; action
2. intensity; appeal
3. involvement; action
4. Involvement; appeal

Question No.  16        

They are not part of the same peer group as the people they influence. Their defining characteristic is that they exert personal influence because of their profession, authority, education, or status associated with the object of the communication process. This is referred to as:          

Options          

1. Opinion aggregators
2. Opinion followers
3. Opinion formers
4. Opinion gatherers

Question No.  17        

The success of marketing communication depends upon the extent to which messages engage their audiences. These audiences can be seen to fall into three main groups  

Options          

1. Customers, general public, and sales personnel
2. Customers, channel members, and general stakeholders
3. Customers, general stakeholders, and club members
4. General public, club members, and general stakeholders

Question No.  18        

Each organization is part of a network of other organizations such as suppliers, retailers, wholesalers, value added resellers, distributors, and other retailers, who join together, often freely, to make the product or service available to end users. This is referred to as:         

Options          

1. Channel members
2. Customers
3. Stakeholders
4. Community

Question No.  19        

Which of the following is the communication model that depicts information flowing via various media channels, to particular types of people to whom other members of the audience refer for information and guidance?   

Options          

1. Two-step
2. Three-step
3. Multi-step
4. One-step

Question No.  20        

Which of the following is the interpersonal communication about products or services where a receiver regards the communicator as impartial and is not attempting to sell products or services?          

Options          

1. Word of Mouth (WOM)
2. Personal Selling (PS)
3. Direct Marketing (DM)
4. Customer Service (CS)

Question No.  21        

Promotion technique for consumers according to which demonstrations and displays of products made at place of sale is called    

Options          

1. point of purchase promotion
2. Discounts
3. sales premium
4. advertising specialties

Question No.  22        

Personal selling step in which sales person asks for an order to customer is classified as     

Options          

1. shipper approach
2. handling shipment
3. closing
4. follow up

Question No.  23        

Sales force structure in which a sales representatives works to sell specific items of product line is classified as   

Options          

1. indirect sales force structure
2. territorial sales force structure
3. customer sales force structure
4. product sales force structure

Question No.  24        

Third step in personal selling process after completion of pre-approach step is to    

Options          

1. prospecting and qualifying
2. handling objections
3. approach
4. presentation and demonstration 

Question No.  25        

Step in personal selling process which consists of first meeting first meeting between customer and sales person is called  

Options          

1. qualifying
2. prospecting
3. follow up
4. approach

Question No.  26        

Type of sales person who work from their offices through internet or telephone are classified as   

Options          

1. channel intermediaries
2. nominal sales force
3. inside sales force
4. outside sales force

Question No.  27        

In personal selling process, step which consists of identifying potential customers is classified as  

Options          

1. presenting quota
2. demonstrating quota
3. prospecting
4. qualifying

Question No.  28        

Sales promotion tools used to stimulate purchase, motivate salespeople and generate business leads are classified in category of     

Options          

1. event promotion
2. off deal promotion
3. trade promotions
4. business promotions

 Question No.  29        

Consumer promotion technique through which brand marketing event is created by company or it participates in other sponsored event is classified as

Options          

1. event marketing
2. sponsored marketing
3. branding
4. premium marketing

Question No.  30        

Consumer promotion technique according to which seller sells two or three units of product at reduced price is classified as    

Options          

1. price packs
2. Discounts
3. advertising specialties
4. Both 1 and 2

Question No.  31        

'Particular communication that must be achieve within definite target audience within specific time is classified as           

Options          

1. message decision
2. media decision
3. advertising objective
4. advertising evaluation

Question No.  32        

Possible objectives of advertising includes    

Options          

1. persuasive advertising
2. reminder advertising
3. Information advertising
4. All of the above

Question No.  33        

Approach of message execution which follows format of style, tone, words and format to execute message of advertising is classified as      

Options          

1. rational style
2. persuasive style
3. creative style
4. execution style

Question No.  34        

Resources and dollars allocated to company's or products promotional program are classified as   

Options          

1. advertising messages
2. advertising budget
3. advertising strategy
4. advertising objective

Question No.  35        

Strategic media planning is a complex challenge because advertises must use their knowledge of  

Options          

1. Psychographics
2. Behavioural characteristics
3. Demographics
4. All of the above

Question No.  36        

Addressable media are used  

Options          

1. to deliver customised marketing messages to identifiable prospects
2. for two-way communication
3. for social media
4. none of the above

Question No.  37        

Media strategy is making media decisions based on 

Options          

1. Whims of the market
2. Understanding customers’ wants and needs
3. Brand awareness
4. The client’s wishes

Question No.  38        

Interactive media can be best described as    

Options          

1. Customized Marketing Messages
2. Marketing Communications Mix
3. Marketing Mix
4. Media that allow two-way messages between company and consumer

Question No.  39        

Extensive local penetration and coverage is indicative of     

Options          

1. Magazines
2. Online Advertising
3. Social Media
4. Newspapers

Question No.  40        

One weakness in using out-of-home media is           

Options          

1. Demographic Flexibility
2. Relatively Low Cost
3. Delivers Excellent Reach
4. Difficult to Measure and Control

Assignment A

                      Q 2. Ramesh requires Rs 100,000 at the end of 5 years so he decides to keep certain equal amount    out of his income at the end of each year in his bank account. The bank pays an interest of 8% per annum. How much should Ramesh save each year? 

                                 ASSIGNMENT B

           ASSIGNMENT C

Question No.  1          

Compounding technique shows---     

Options

1. Present Value
2. Future Value
3. Both present and future value
4. None of the above.

Question No.  2          

An infinite series of periodic cash flows growing at a constant rate is---      

Options          

1. Annuity
2. Perpetuity
3. Future value
4. compounding

Question No.  3          

Working capital represents---

Options          

1. the capital raised by the company
2. capital required to meet day to day expenses
3. Equity capital of the company
4. Total capital of the company

Question No.  4          

An example of liquidity ratio is---     

Options          

1. Current ratio
2. Debt –equity ratio
3. Debtors turnover ratio
4. Return on equity

Question No.  5          

Discounting techniques in capital budgeting include---        

Options          

1. NPV
2. Profitability Index
3. Payback period
4. None of the above

Question No.  6          

Net Profit Ratio Signifies---  

Options          

1. Operational Profitability
2. Liquidity Position
3. Big-term Solvency
4. Profit for Lenders.

Question No.  7          

ABC Ltd. has a Current Ratio of 1.5: 1 and Net Current Assets of Rs. 5, 00,000. What are the Current Assets?              

Options          

1. 5,00,000
2. 10,00,000
3. 15,00,000
4. 25,00,000

Question No.  8          

Financial Planning deals with---        

Options          

1. Preparation of Financial Statements
2. Planning for a Capital Issue
3. Preparing Budgets
4. All of the above

Question No.  9          

Capital Budgeting is a part of---        

Options          

1. Investment Decision
2. Working Capital Management
3. Marketing Management
4. Capital Structure

Question No.  10        

A proposal is not a Capital Budgeting proposal if it--           

Options          

1. is related to Fixed Assets
2. brings long-term benefits
3. brings short-term benefits only
4. has very large investment

Question No.  11        

Two mutually exclusive projects with different economic lives can be compared on the basis of---            

Options          

1. Internal Rate of Return
2. Profitability Index
3. Net Present Value
4. Equivalent Annuity Value

Question No.  12        

Risk in Capital budgeting implies that the decision-maker knows ___________of the cash flows.            

Options          

1. Variability
2. Probability
3. Certainty
4. None of the above

Question No.  13        

Cost of Capital refers to---     

Options          

1. Flotation Cost
2. Dividend
3. Rate of Return Required
4. None of the above

Question No.  14        

Which of the following cost of capital require tax adjustment?        

Options          

1. Cost of Equity Shares
2. Cost of Preference Shares
3. Cost of Debentures
4. Cost of Retained Earnings

Question No.  15        

Which is the most expensive source of funds?          

Options          

1. New Equity Shares
2. New Preference Shares
3. New Debts
4. Retained Earnings

Question No.  16        

In case the firm is all-equity financed, WACC would be equal to---            

Options          

1. Cost of Debt
2. Cost of Equity
3. Neither (a) nor (b)
4. Both (a) and (b)

Question No.  17        

Which of the following is true?         

Options          

1. Retained earnings are cost free
2. External Equity is cheaper than Internal Equity
3. Retained Earnings are cheaper than External Equity
4. Retained Earnings are costlier than External Equity

Question No.  18        

Advantage of Debt financing is---     

Options          

1. Interest is tax-deductible
2. It reduces WACC
3. Does not dilute owners control
4. All of the above

Question No.  19        

Cost of Equity Share Capital is more than cost of debt because---  

Options          

1. Face value of debentures is more than face value of shares
2. Equity shares have higher risk than debt
3. Equity shares are easily saleable
4. All of the three above

Question No.  20        

Which of the following is true for Net Income Approach?  

Options          

1. Higher Equity is better
2. Higher Debt is better
3. Debt Ratio is irrelevant
4. None of the above

Question No.  21        

NOI Approach advocates that the degree of debt financing is---     

Options          

1. Relevant
2. May be relevant
3. Irrelevant
4. May be irrelevant

Question No.  22        

Dividend Pay-out Ratio is---             

Options          

1. PAT÷ Capital
2. DPS ÷ EPS
3. Dividend ÷ PAT
4. Dividend ÷ Equity Dividend

Question No.  23        

Which of the following is not the responsibility of financial management?             

Options          

1. allocation of funds to current and capital assets
2. obtaining the best mix of financing alternatives
3. preparation of the firm's accounting statements
4. development of an appropriate dividend policy

Question No.  24        

Which of the following are not among the daily activities of financial management?         

Options          

1. sale of shares and corporate bonds
2. credit management
3. inventory control
4. the receipt and disbursement of funds

Question No.  25        

The mix of debt and equity in a firm is referred to as the firm's---  

Options          

1. primary capital
2. capital composition
3. cost of capital
4. capital structure

Question No.  26        

(1 + i) n stands for---              

Options          

1. PVIF
2. FVIF
3. PVIFA
4. FVIFA

Question No.  27        

Net working capital refers to---         

Options          

1. Total assets minus fixed assets.
2. Current assets minus current liabilities
3. current assets minus inventories
4. Current assets

Question No.  28        

Retained earnings are---         

Options          

1. An indication of a company's liquidity.
2. The same as cash in the bank.
3. Not important when determining dividends.
4. The cumulative earnings of the company after dividends.

Question No.  29        

The restructuring of a corporation should be undertaken if---           

Options          

1. The restructuring can prevent an unwanted takeover.
2. The restructuring is expected to create value for shareholders.
3. The restructuring is expected to increase the firm's revenue.
4. The interests of bondholders are not negatively affected.

Question No.  30        

__________ is concerned with the acquisition, financing, and management of assets with some overall goal in mind.            

Options          

1. Financial Management
2. Profit Maximization
3. Agency theory
4. Social responsibility

Question No.  31        

What is the most appropriate goal of the firm?         

Options          

1. Shareholder wealth maximization.
2. Profit Maximization
3. Stakeholder maximization.
4. EPS maximization.

Question No.  32        

A company can improve (lower) its debt-to-total asset ratio by doing which of the following?      

Options          

1. Borrow more.
2. Shift short-term to long-term debt.
3. Shift long-term to short-term debt.
4. Sell common stock.

Question No.  33        

The DuPont Approach breaks down the earning power on shareholders' book value (ROE) as follows--            ROE = __________.           

Options          

1. Net profit margin × Total asset turnover × Equity multiplier
2. Total asset turnover × Gross profit margin × Debt ratio
3. Total asset turnover × Net profit margin
4. Total asset turnover × Gross profit margin × Equity multiplier

Question No.  34        

Which group of ratios measures how effectively the firm is using its assets?           

Options          

1. Liquidity ratios.
2. Coverage ratios.
3. Profitability ratios.
4. Activity ratios.

Question No.  35        

Which of the following is not a cash outflow for the firm?  

Options          

3. Interest payments.

Question No.  36        

The accounting statement of cash flows reports a firm's cash flows segregated into what categorical order?         

Options          

1. Operating, investing, and financing.
2. Investing, operating, and financing.
3. Financing, operating and investing.
4. Financing, investing, and operating.

Question No.  37        

Which of the following is a basic principle of finance as it relates to the management of working capital?            

Options          

1. Profitability varies inversely with risk.
2. Liquidity moves together with risk.
3. Profitability moves together with risk.
4. Profitability moves together with liquidity.

Question No.  38        

The amount of current assets required to meet a firm's long-term minimum needs is referred to as __________ working capital          

Options          

1. permanent
2. temporary
3. net
4. gross

Question No.  39        

The overall (weighted average) cost of capital is composed of a weighted average of __________.          

Options          

1. the cost of common equity and the cost of debt
2. the cost of common equity and the cost of preferred stock
3. the cost of preferred stock and cost of debt
4. the cost of common equity, the cost of preferred stock and cost of debt

Question No.  40        

What is the most likely reason that a firm (who is highly profitable) might consider acquiring a firm that has had large recent losses and will continue to have losses into the near future?     

Options           

1. Hubris
2. White knight.
3. Tax-loss usage.
4. Increase assets

MANAGERIAL INFORMATION SYSTEM

1. What are the goals of Information System security? Explain IS security Management control and any five tools of security management to overcome computer crime?

2. What is Decision Support System? Explain the components, Decision making Phases and Analytical Models of DSS

3. Discuss Data Resource Management Technologies? Why these technologies considered as backbone of modern Information Systems?

4. What M-Commerce Services and Applications an organization should integrate in its Information System? What operation excellence will they give to the organization

5. Write notes on (All questions to be answered. Minimum 1 full page for each question)

1. Information System planning and approaches

1. Pre-requisites of Information Systems development

1. Physical & Logical DFD

1. Grantt Chart

6. Explain organization as a system. Define Hierarchical structure of an organization and discuss how characteristics of information changes while traversing different levels of management

7. What challenges do you see for a company that wants to implement collaborative system integration of its various services and departments?  How would a company meet such challenges

8. What is Information System Prototyping? Explaining the concept of System Development Life Cycle (SDLC). Discuss in detail the activities involved in development of E-Commerce based Information System in an organization

CASE STUDY

The near past saw the effective implementation of the online services including Electronic Customer Relationship Management (e-CRM) solution by the US-based IT giant IBM. The conceiving and implementation of online e-CRM solution by IBM was scheduled in association with the leading CRM software vendor - Siebel Systems.

The process followed by IBM to implement the e-CRM solution describing its systems architecture faced quite a lot challenges in implementing the solution, but the benefits reaped by the company after the implementation were enormous.

In January 2000, IBM, the $86 billion IT company, embarked on the largest electronic based Customer Relationship Management (e-CRM) project known at that time. Termed CRM 2000, the project aimed at ensuring that any point of interface between the customer and IBM, through any of its channels, in any country, was dealt with uniformly, providing the same service level, applying the same tools and information.

In other words, IBM wanted to present a unified interface to its customers across the world. In 2004, four years after the project, the company was well on its way towards fulfilling its objective, reporting significant improvement in customer satisfaction levels.

To manage the worldwide installation of Siebel's e-CRM applications, IBM launched a global program. Installation of e-CRM systems was only a part of the implementation process of CRM solutions at IBM. A more important task was to manage internal business process changes following the installation.

The deployment of the e-CRM solution let to significant productivity improvement at various IBM units within a year of implementation. Without increasing the number of staff manning call centers, more number of calls could be dealt with and more leads were generated.

1. Discuss the importance of implementing an online CRM solution in a large multi-product, multinational company 

2. Discuss the implementation process of a mega e-CRM project in a leading IT company in the world. 

3. Study the challenges faced in an e-CRM project and identify ways to overcome them

Ans:-

1. A _____ focuses on planning, policies, and procedures regarding the use of corporate data and information
   1. CIO
   2. systems analyst
   3. database administrator
   4. system operator
2. _____ organizational structure employs individuals, groups, or complete business units in geographically dispersed areas who may never meet face to face in the same room.
   1. Traditional
   2. Virtual
   3. Multidimensional
   4. Matrix
3. _____ are individuals who help users determine what outputs they need from the system and construct the plans needed to develop the necessary programs that produce these outputs.
   1. Data entry operators
   2. Programmers
   3. Database administrators
   4. Systems analysts
4. The current major stage in the business use of IS is oriented towards ____.
   1. Cost reduction and productivity
   2. Gaining competitive advantage
   3. Strategic advantage and costs
   4. Improved customer relationship management

5. The extent to which technology permeates an area or department is called ____.
   1. Technology diffusion
   2. Technology infusion
   3. Technology collusion
   4. Technology fusion

6. According to the ____ theory, organizations adapt to new conditions or alter their practices over time. 
   1. Change model
   2. Organizational learning
   3. Organizational culture
   4. Continuous improvement

7. A ____ is an abstraction or an approximation that is used to represent reality.
   1. Model
   2. System parameter
   3. System performance standard
   4. System
8. ____ gives the computer the ability to make suggestions and act like an expert in a particular field.
   1. Decision support systems
   2. Virtual reality systems
   3. Management information systems
   4. Expert systems
9. ____ is an awareness and understanding of a set of information and ways that information can be made useful to support a specific task or reach a decision
   1. Knowledge
   2. Data
   3. Feedback
   4. A process
10. ____ attacks have overwhelmed the capacity of some of the Web's most established and popular sites.
    1. Spam
    2. Credit card fraud
    3. Denial-of-service
    4. Spoofing
11. The value of information is directly linked to ____.
    1. its accuracy and completeness
    2. its verifiability
    3. its simplicity and security
    4. how it helps decision makers achieve organizational goals
12. ____ is any business-related exchange such as payments to employees, sales to customers, or payments to suppliers.
    1. Data
    2. E-commerce
    3. A transaction
    4. Input

13. ____ represent(s) the application of information concepts and technology to routine, repetitive, and usually ordinary business transactions
    1. E-commerce
    2. Transaction processing systems
    3. Management information systems
    4. Decision support systems
14. ____ is a collection of single-application software packages in a bundle designed to work similarly so that once you learn the basics for one application, the other applications are easy to learn and use.
    1. Bundled software
    2. Software suite
    3. Productivity applications
    4. General purpose software
15. Information systems that support the firm in its interaction with its environment are said to be performing within the ____.
    1. Workgroup sphere of influence
    2. Global sphere of influence
    3. Enterprise sphere of influence
    4. Individual sphere of influence
16. _____ is software programs that were developed for a general market and that can be purchased in a store.

1. Proprietary software
2. Off-the-shelf software
3. Contract software
4. Application software

17. ____ describes various program functions and help users operate the computer system
    1. A computer program
    2. Documentation
    3. Systems software
    4. A computer system platform
18. ____ is an Internet service that enables you to log on to another computer and access its public files.
    1. Telnet
    2. FTP
    3. Content streaming
    4. Instant messaging
19. ____ is a protocol that enables you to copy a file from another computer to your computer.
    1. SLIP
    2. Usenet
    3. Telnet
    4. FTP
20. ____ is the process of converting a message into a secret code and changing the encoded message back to regular text.
    1. Encryption
    2. Fraud
    3. Encoding
    4. Cryptography
21. ____ converts ciphertext back into plaintext.
    1. Encryption
    2. A firewall
    3. Decryption
    4. An encoder
22. Using ____ technology, network managers can route phone calls and fax transmissions over the same network that they use for data.
    1. Voice-over-IP
    2. Content streaming
    3. Hypermedia
    4. XML
23. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing systems?
    1. Capture, process, and store transactions
    2. Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
    3. Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
    4. Produce standard reports used for management decision making
24. ___ is a form of transaction processing in which all transactions are collected into a group and processed together.
    1. Accumulation processing
    2. Batch processing
    3. Data collection
    4. Data collection
25. The data processing activity that involves rekeying miskeyed or misscanned data is called ____.
    1. Editing
    2. data storage
    3. data correction
    4. data collection
26. With the ___ form of data processing, each transaction is processed immediately.
    1. OLTP
    2. batch processing
    3. active processing
    4. automated transaction processing A(n) ____ is a type of report that summarizes the previous
27. Day’s critical activities and is typically available at the beginning of each workday.
    1. Demand report
    2. scheduled report
    3. key-indicator report
    4. exception report
28. Which of the following statements, about the use of decision support systems, is true?
    1. They are applied only to the choice phase of the problem-solving process.
    2. They are only applied to frequent, recurring problems.
    3. They are only applied to highly-structured problems
    4. They assist decision makers at all levels within the organization.
29. Problems that are routine and have well-defined relationships are called ____.
    1. Structured problems
    2. Programmed decisions
    3. Simple problems
    4. Heuristics
30. Using ____, a decision maker can make hypothetical changes to problem data and observe the impact on the results
    1. Simulation
    2. What-if analysis
    3. Optimization
    4. Goal-seeking analysis
31. The first stage in the problem-solving process is called the ____ stage. During this stage, potential problems or opportunities are identified and defined.
    1. Choice
    2. Design
    3. Monitoring
    4. Intelligence
32. The component of a decision support system that provides decision makers access to a variety of models and assists them in decision making is called the ____.
    1. Model base
    2. model management software
    3. database
    4. dialogue manager
33. ____ often referred to as "rules of thumb," are commonly accepted guidelines or procedures that usually lead to a good decision.
    1. Optimization models
    2. Satisficing models
    3. Heuristics
    4. Programmed decisions
34. ____ involves the investigation of new approaches to existing problems.
    
    
    1. Systems analysis
    2. Creative analysis
    3. Critical analysis
    4. Organizational analysis
35. Which of the following SDLCs listed below takes an iterative approach to the systems development process?
    1. end user
    2. RAD
    3. Prototyping
    4. traditional waterfall
36. ____ is factors that are essential to the success of certain functional areas of an organization.
    1. Mission-critical factors
    2. Critical success factors
    3. Performance objectives
    4. Strategic factors
37. The translation of strategic and organizational goals into system development initiatives is called ____.
    1. Systems development
    2. information systems planning
    3. project planning
    4. project definition
38. The four key questions related to fairness in information use are ____.
    1. cost, timing, content, and frequency
    2. notice, consent, accuracy, and authorization
    3. knowledge, control, notice, and consent
    4. knowledge, accuracy, timing, and permission
39. Whose responsibility is it to see that the potential consequences of IS use are fully considered?
    
    
    1. IS professionals
    2. Managers
    3. Users
    4. all of the above

40. ___ is a crime in which the imposter obtains key pieces of personal information in order to impersonate the victim.
    1. Social engineering
    2. Dumpster diving
    3. Computer fraud
    4. Identity theft

Production & Operations Management

Assignment A

1. Discuss the Material Requirement planning.

2. Differentiate between ABC and VED analysis.

3. Explain EOQ.
4. Discuss the PDCA cycle.      

5. Explain mass production system.   

6. Discuss different types of plant layout.      
7. Discuss JIT.  
8. Explain production planning and control.

Assignment B

Case Detail:

EOQ applies only when demand for a product is constant over the year and each new order is delivered in full when inventory reaches zero. There is a fixed cost for each order placed, regardless of the number of units ordered. There is also a cost for each unit held in storage, commonly known as holding cost, sometimes expressed as a percentage of the purchase cost of the item.

We want to determine the optimal number of units to order so that we minimize the total cost associated with the purchase, delivery and storage of the product.

The required parameters to the solution are the total demand for the year, the purchase cost for each item, the fixed cost to place the order and the storage cost for each item per year. Note that the number of times an order is placed will also affect the total cost, though this number can be determined from the other parameters.

1. Discuss the parameters required to calculate EOQ.

2. When can EOQ be implemented?
3. Explain various costs associated with inventory.

Assignment C

Question No.  1           Marks - 10

…………...applies only when demand for a product is constant over the year and each new order is delivered in full when inventory reaches zero.  

Options          

1. a)EOQ   
2. b)ABC   
3. c)VED   
4. d)FSN

Question No.  2           Marks - 10

This is the variable cost of goods: purchase unit price × annual demand quantity.  

Options          

• Purchase cost 
• Ordering cost 
• Holding cost   
• all of the above

Question No.  3           Marks - 10

……………...is the planning of production and manufacturing modules in a company or industry           

Options          

1. a)production planning
2. b)production control      
3. c)Both (a) & (b)
4. d)None of the above

Question No.  4           Marks - 10

Production planning can be combined with production control into production planning and control, or it can be combined and or integrated into ………..

Options          

1. a)ABC   
2. b)EOQ   
3. c)ERP
4. d)VED

Question No.  5           Marks - 10

Production planning comprises of which of the following activities?          

Options          

1. a)Determination of the required product mix and factory load to satisfy customers needs
2. b)Matching the required level of production to the existing resources 
3. c)Scheduling and choosing the actual work to be started in the manufacturing facility
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  6           Marks - 10

………... is the activity of monitoring and controlling any particular production or operation.      

Options          

1. a)production planning   
2. b)production control
3. c)Both (a) & (b)
4. d)None of the above

Question No.  7           Marks - 10

This is the cost of placing orders: each order has a fixed cost K, and we need to order D/Q times per year.           

Options          

1. a)Purchase cost 
2. b)Ordering cost 
3. c)Holding cost   
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  8           Marks - 10

It is also known as Facilities Planning and Layout.  

Options          

1. a)Plant   
2. b)production control      
3. c)plant mayout  
4. d)plant layout

Question No.  9           Marks - 10

If all the processing equipment and machines are arranged according to the sequence of operations of the product, the layout is called...

Options          

 Product or Line Layout        

1. a)Process or Functional Layout.           
2. b)Fixed Position Layout.          
3. c)all of the above

Question No.  10         Marks - 10

In this type of layout, only one product of one type of products is produced in an operating area. 

Options          

1. a)Product or Line Layout         
2. b)Process or Functional Layout.           
3. c)Fixed Position Layout.          
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  11         Marks - 10

This layout is particularly useful where low volume of production is needed.        

Options          

1. a)Product or Line Layout         
2. b)Process or Functional Layout.           
3. c)Fixed Position Layout.          
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  12         Marks - 10

It is an engineering study used to analyze different physical configurations for a manufacturing plant      

Options          

1. a)Plant   
2. b)production control      
3. c)plant mayout  
4. d)plant layout

Question No.  13         Marks - 10

It is a "set of actions and decision taken during production to regulate output and obtain reasonable assurance that the specification will be met."    

Options          

1. a)production planning   
2. b)production control
3. c)Both (a) & (b)
4. d)None of the above

Question No.  14         Marks - 10

In this type of layout, the machines and not arranged according to the sequence of operations but are arranged according to the nature or type of the operations.     

Options          

1. a)Product or Line Layout         
2. b)Process or Functional Layout.           
3. c)Fixed Position Layout.          
4. d)all of the above          

Question No.  15         Marks - 10

……...is an Internet-enabled, often Web-based application that acts as a mechanism for business to manage and procure staffing services – temporary, and, in some cases, permanent placement services – as well as outside contract or contingent labor.  

Options          

1. a)ABC   
2. b)EOQ   
3. c)JIT      
4. d)VMS

Question No.  16         Marks - 10

The average quantity in stock (between fully replenished and empty) is Q/2, so this cost is h × Q/2          

Options          

1. a)Purchase cost 
2. b)Ordering cost 
3. c)Holding cost
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  17         Marks - 10

An effective MPS      

Options          

1. a)Give production, planning, purchasing, and management the information to plan and control manufacturing
2. b)Tie overall business planning and forecasting to detail operations   
3. c)Enable marketing to make legitimate delivery commitments to warehouses and customers
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  18         Marks - 10

MPS issues:    

Options          

1. a)Width of the time bucket       
2. b)Planning horizon        
3. c)Rolling plan   
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  19         Marks - 10

In this type of layout the major component remain in a fixed location, other materials, parts, tools, machinery, man power and other supporting equipment’s are brought to this location. 

Options          

1. a)Product or Line Layout         
2. b)Process or Functional Layout.           
3. c)Fixed Position Layout.          
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  20         Marks - 10

………...is a methodology aimed primarily at reducing flow times within production as well as response times from suppliers and to customers.       

Options          

1. a)ABC   
2. b)EOQ   
3. c)JIT
4. d)VED

Question No.  21         Marks - 10

…………….is a plan for individual commodities to be produced in each time period such as production, staffing, inventory, etc           

Options          

1. a)MPS   
2. b)ABC   
3. c)EOQ   
4. d)JIT

Question No.  22         Marks - 10

A…………. is a person or organization that vends or sells contingent labor.          

Options          

1. a)vendor
2. b)customer         
3. c)company         
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  23         Marks - 10

This layout is commonly suitable for non repetitive jobs.    

Options          

1. a)Product or Line Layout         
2. b)Process or Functional Layout.           
3. c)Fixed Position Layout.          
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  24         Marks - 10

It is the most effective physical arrangement, either existing or in plans of industrial facilities i.e. arrangement of machines, processing equipment and service departments to achieve greatest co-ordination and efficiency of 4 M’s (Men, Materials, Machines and Methods) in a plant. 

Options          

1. a)Plant   
2. b)production control      
3. c)plant mayout  
4. d)plant layout

Question No.  25         Marks - 10

It utilizes the resource allocation of activities of employees, materials and production capacity, in order to serve different customers.   

Options          

1. a)production planning
2. b)production control      
3. c)Both (a) & (b)
4. d)None of the above      

Question No.  26         Marks - 10

This type of layout is used in the manufacture of boilers, hydraulic and steam turbines and ships etc.       

Options          

1. a)Product or Line Layout         
2. b)Process or Functional Layout.           
3. c)Fixed Position Layout.          
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  27         Marks - 10

…………...is the process of determining the production capacity needed by an organization to meet changing demands for its products       

Options          

1. a)production control      
2. b)plant mayout  
3. c)plant layout    
4. d)capacity planning

Question No.  28         Marks - 10

Effective capacity is the maximum amount of work that an organization is capable of completing in a given period due to constraints such as       

Options          

1. a)quality problems        
2. b)delays 
3. c)material handling       
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  29         Marks - 10

 IT capacity planning involves           

Options          

1. a)estimating the storage
2. b)computer hardware, software
3. c)connection infrastructure resources   
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  30         Marks - 10

Demand for an organization's capacity varies based on        

Options          

1. a)changes in production output
2. b)increasing or decreasing the production quantity of an existing product      
3. c)Both (a) & (b)
4. d)None of the above

Question No.  31         Marks - 10

Better utilization of existing capacity can be accomplished through improvements in overall …….. effectiveness  

Options          

1. a)equipment
2. b)class    
3. c)product           
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  32         Marks - 10

………….. can be increased through introducing new techniques, equipment and materials, increasing the number of workers or machines, increasing the number of shifts, or acquiring additional production facilities.           

Options          

1. a)control
2. b)management   
3. c)Capacity
4. d)all of the above          

Question No.  33         Marks - 10

…….. strategy is adding capacity in anticipation of an increase in demand.

Options          

1. a)lag   
2. b)pull  
3. c)push
4. d)lead

Question No.  34         Marks - 10

A large capacity does not necessarily imply…... inventory levels, but it can imply higher cycle stock costs.           

Options          

1. a)low     
2. b)zero    
3. c)high
4. d)two

Question No.  35         Marks - 10

…………. strategy refers to adding capacity only after the organization is running at full capacity or beyond due to increase in demand     

Options          

1. a)lag
2. b)pull     
3. c)push    
4. d)lead

Question No.  36         Marks - 10

Typical features of a VMS application include         

Options          

1. a)order distribution,      
2. b)consolidated billing    
3. c)significant enhancements in reporting capability      
4. d)all of the above

Question No.  37         Marks - 10

This plan quantifies significant processes, parts, and other resources in order to optimize production, to identify bottlenecks, and to anticipate needs and completed goods.  

Options          

1. a)MPS
2. b)ABC   
3. c)EOQ   
4. d)JIT

Question No.  38         Marks - 10

…………... strategy is an aggressive strategy with the goal of luring customers away from the company's competitors by improving the service level and reducing lead time.

Options          

1. a)lag      
2. b)pull     
3. c)push    
4. d)lead

Question No.  39         Marks - 10

……..strategy is adding capacity in small amounts in response to changing demand in the market

Options          

1. a)match
2. b)lag      
3. c)pull     
4. d)push

Question No.  40         Marks - 10

………. strategy is adding or reducing capacity in small or large amounts due to consumer's demand, or, due to major changes to product or system architecture.     

Options          

1. a)attachment     
2. b)match 
3. c)lag      
4. d)pull

Module I Basic Concepts of Entrepreneurship /

Entrepreneur means

1. To struggle
2. To undertake
3. To invent
4. To motivate

An Entrepreneur who is in the process of starting a new business is ____________.

1. Drone entrepreneur
2. Novice Entrepreneur
3. Nascent entrepreneur
4. Social entrepreneur

Who should be involved in preparing a firm’s business plan?

1. Accountant
2. Engineer
3. Entrepreneur
4. None of the above

Who among these starts business with an idea not for making profit but for social welfare

1. Social entrepreneur
2. Imitative Entrepreneur
3. Drone entrepreneur
4. Novice Entrepreneur

A _____________ is someone who adopts successful concepts and idea that have been proven by innovative entrepreneurs.

1. Portfolio Entrepreneurs
2. Novice Entrepreneur
3. Imitative Entrepreneur
4. None of the above

An entrepreneur who is the owner of more than one business is called ____________.

1. Portfolio Entrepreneur
2. Entrepreneur
3. Corporate Entrepreneur
4. None of the above

The process of creating something new is called _______.

1. Creative flexibility
2. Management
3. Business
4. Innovation

Which of these is not a challenge for the entrepreneur?

1. Managing the cash flow of their business
2. Recruiting new employees
3. Choosing the product or service to sell in the market
4. Formulating rules and regulations relating to conducting entrepreneurship in their country

An individual who makes change in method of production is ____________.

1. Imitative Entrepreneur
2. Portfolio Entrepreneurs
3. Novice Entrepreneur
4. Drone entrepreneur

An entrepreneur who has no prior business ownership experience –

1. Novice Entrepreneur
2. Imitative Entrepreneur
3. Portfolio Entrepreneurs
4. None of the above

Which of the following is a recognized disadvantage of setting up as a start-up as compared with other routes to market entry?

1. less satisfaction of the owners.
2. less help from various agencies
3. there are more funds required
4. there is a high failure rate

Which of the following is a remedy to solve the problems of women entrepreneurs?

1. Finance cells
2. Social attitude
3. Stiff Competition
4. Supervision

Which of the following statements does not explain the difference between entrepreneurship and management.

1. Entrepreneurs find the business, managers run it
2. Entrepreneurs own their business, managing employees
3. Entrepreneurs earn profit, managers get salary
4. Entrepreneur is a one time job, management is an ongoing process.

EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Programs) is required to help_____________

1. Existing entrepreneurs
2. First generation entrepreneurs
3. Future generation entrepreneurs
4. None of the above

The role of an Entrepreneurship in Economic Development are-

1. Promotes Balanced Regional Development
2. Encourages Capital Formation
3. Rural Development and Reduction in Migration
4. All of the above

They enter into entrepreneurship because of various governmental supports provided in terms of financial assistance, incentives, concessions, and other facilities to the people who want to set up their new enterprises ”. Which type of entrepreneur is being discussed in the above lines?

1. Induced Entrepreneurs
2. Motivated Entrepreneurs
3. Spontaneous Entrepreneurs
4. Imitative Entrepreneurs

Which of these statements best describes the context for entrepreneurship?

1. Entrepreneurship takes place in small businesses
2. Entrepreneurship takes place in large businesses
3. Entrepreneurship takes place in a wide variety of contexts
4. Entrepreneurship does not take place in social enterprises

Module II Environmental Monitoring and Importance of Business Idea

Entrepreneurship Development Program is helpful for

1. Existing Entrepreneurs
2. Future generation entrepreneurs
3. First-generation entrepreneurs
4. None of the above

An entrepreneur has an amalgamation of

1. Thinking Ability, creativity, critical thinking, analytical abilities and originality.
2. Aptitude for Human Relations
3. Communication Skills.
4. Financial Ability

Entrepreneurial development is the key to achieve all-round ______________ through acceleration of industrial and entrepreneurial activities

1. economic development
2. increase in profits
3. shareholders value
4. business development

Which of these is not a category of external forces that affects a business?

1. Competitive forces
2. Organisational mission and values
3. Economic forces
4. Socio-economic forces

Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?

1. Business model
2. Modelling
3. Creative flexibility
4. Innovation

EDP’s course contents contain ___________.

1. General introduction to entrepreneurs
2. Motivation training.
3. Managerial skills
4. All the above

Changes which take place in environment

1. Affect all businesses in similar manner
2. Do not affect at all.
3. Affect all businesses in different manner
4. Affect all businesses in different manner

The surroundings of business enterprise which have impact on the growth of business is called-

1. Environment
2. Surroundings
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of these

Which one of the following is an advantage of the small firm in the innovation process?

1. Ability of the entrepreneur to carry out multiple tasks
2. Ability to raise finance
3. Ability to carry out R&D
4. Ability of the entrepreneur to act on new ideas or product development

__________ is the response of a person or an organization to solving an identified problem or to meeting perceived needs.

1. Business plan
2. Business idea
3. Feasibility study
4. None of these

Allan is of the view that successful entrepreneur’s approach to idea generation as the top priority activity by devoting sufficient period of time to it.

1. Agree
2. Partially agree
3. Don't agree
4. None of these

Which one of the following is not involved in Entrepreneurship Development Programme (EDP)

1. Identification of entrepreneurs for training
2. Selection of entrepreneurs for training
3. Developing entrepreneurial capabilities
4. Arranging infrastructural facilities

Which of the following techniques is an excellent method for initially screening ideas and concepts in addition to generating new ideas?

1. Encourage teamwork
2. Understanding environment
3. Not flexible
4. Persistent

___________ are often considered the foundation of a start-up venture

1. Capital
2. Premises
3. Idea
4. Buildings

Which of the following are motivations for pursuing an entrepreneurial career?

1. Being my own boss, managing my own time and enjoying the benefits of my own labour
2. In my country, successful entrepreneurs enjoy high social status, respect and appreciation of others.
3. Wishing to have a safe and stable career, while not worrying about my income each month/year.
4. Inventing a new technology and seeking to perfect its technical development.

What is the link between innovation and entrepreneurship?

1. Both innovation and entrepreneurship are two different labels describing the same thing launching new businesses
2. Entrepreneurs use innovation processes for gaining strategic advantage in markets, by creating and exploiting change situations as opportunities for value creation
3. Innovation is necessarily the way by which entrepreneurs create new organizations
4. Entrepreneurs drive innovation in an attempt to change conditions in markets, as part of endless cycles of creative destruction

.

Innovation can best be defined as_______.

1. the generation of new ideas
2. the evolution of new ideas
3. the opposite of creativity
4. the successful exploitation of new ideas.

Module III Scanning the Environment

The E's in PESTEL Analysis stand fora.

Ecological and Essential

1. Efficiency and Effectiveness
2. Economic and Environment
3. Ecology and Enterprise

_____________ can be defined as a specifically evolved work plan dense to achieve a Specific objective within a specific period

of time

1. Idea generation
2. Opportunity Scanning
3. Project
4. Strategy

Which of these actions of an entrepreneur will most likely result in creative destruction?

1. Developing a new product
2. Taking over a competitor’s business
3. Issuing shares to individuals and institutions
4. Lowering prices of your product or service

Which of the following could be a threat under SWOT analysis?

1. Lack of marketing expertise
2. A market vacated by an ineffective competitor
3. Location of your business
4. Changes in technology

The process of gathering information about trends and occurrences in an organization's internal and external environment that bear on its success, currently and in the future is called-

1. Need for achievement
2. Tendency
3. Neuroticism
4. Scanning the environment

A business plan should include

1. Technical Analysis
2. Market Analysis
3. Financial Analysis
4. All of the above

Which of the following type of feasibility is concerned details on how to deliver a product or service?

1. Market feasibility
2. Financial feasibility
3. Organisational feasibility
4. Technical feasibility

What can be defined as an attractive project idea which an entrepreneur accepts as a basis for his investment decision?

1. Possibility
2. Business
3. Opportunity
4. Notion

____ is conducted to determine whether a proposed business has sufficient management expertise, organizational competence, and resources to successfully launch its business.

1. A marketing plan
2. Organizational feasibility analysis
3. Industry/market feasibility analysis
4. Financial feasibility analysis

Which of the following could be an opportunity under SWOT analysis?

1. Having quality processes and procedures
2. Moving into new market segments that offer improved profits
3. Damaged reputation
4. A new competitor in your home market

Feasibility study determines ____________.

1. Whether the project is possible with resources
2. Comparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
3. Calculate the cost crashing each unit
4. Add duration to each unit

Five dimensions that must be managed on a project are-

1. Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
2. Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
3. Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
4. Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

Which of the following is true about preparing a SWOT Analysis?

1. It should focus on where the organization is today, not where it could be in the future.
2. A SWOT Analysis is objective
3. It should be specific and avoid grey areas
4. It should analyze the organization only and ignore the performance of competitors.

_____________ is used to accomplish the project economically in the minimum available time with limited resources

1. Project Scheduling
2. Network Analysis
3. Budget Analysis
4. Critical Planning

Following are the phases of Project Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct order 1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis andevaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and delivery

1. 1-2-3-4
2. 2-3-1-4
3. 4-3-2-1
4. 3-2-1-4

Why is PESTEL Analysis called 'Environmental Scanning'?

1. Because it looks at climate change
2. Because it scans the environment for potential positive and negative factors
3. Because it is done on a compute
4. Because it compares organisations against each other

Which of the following is false regarding why a SWOT Analysis is used?

1. To build on the strengths of a business
2. To minimize the weaknesses of a business
3. To reduce opportunities available to a business
4. To counteract threats to a business

What should be the main worry of a entrepreneur who asks for capital in exchange for equity shares in their venture?

1. Valuation
2. Control
3. Capitalisation
4. Legal formalities

Module IV Business Plan and Sources of Capital

Which among these is a money manager who is involved in making risk investments from equity capital with the

objective of gaining better returns?

1. Entrepreneur
2. Businessperson
3. Buyer
4. Venture capitalist

_____________ provides a blueprint of actions to be taken in future

1. Business idea
2. Business Plan
3. Feasibility study
4. Idea evaluation

This part of a business plan shows the knowledge of the industry and includes statistics on marketing data for the companies products/services, and evaluates competition

1. Executive Summary
2. Company Description
3. Market Analysis
4. Strategy

Why is the executive summary perhaps the most important section of the business plan?

1. This section of the plan provides in-depth discussion of the major trends in the industry in which the firm intends to compete.
2. If this section of the plan fails to attract an investor's interest, he or she is unlikely to read the remainder of the plan.
3. This section of the plan summarizes the firm's key executives
4. This section of the plan deals with the day-to-day operations of the company

A business plan is important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT-

1. A business plan forces a firm's founders to systematically think through each aspect of their new venture.
2. a business plan is a selling document that enables a company to present itself to potential suppliers and business partners
3. A business plan provides an investor with something to react to
4. A business plan provides lenders and investors assurance that they will earn a decent return.

What is an angel investor?

1. A person who makes a donation to a start-up business
2. A person who anonymously makes a contribution to a good cause
3. A person who invests in high-profile, existing businesses
4. A person who has resources to invest in a new start-up

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Venture capital firms

1. Funding just one or a small number of firms.
2. Holding equity in the firms that are funded.
3. Having a long-term investment horizon
4. Providing advice and assistance to the firms that are funded

Which one of the following is not the fund based business of Commercial banks

1. Overdraft facility
2. Acceptance of deposits
3. Issuance of Letters of credit
4. RTGS/NEFT transactions

Ownership capital is also known as?

1. Debt
2. Equity
3. Loan
4. Mortgage

____________ is a written summary of various elements involved in starting a new enterprise of how the business will organise its resources to meet its goals and how it will measure the progress

1. Business idea
2. Feasibility study
3. Business Plan
4. Idea evaluation

______________ is a form of financing especially for funding high technology, high risk and perceived high reward projects

1. Fixed capital
2. Current capital
3. Seed capital
4. Venture capital

Why do entrepreneurs need VC (venture capital)?

1. because they're in their early stage and need cash to invest
2. because they are too small or risky for banks to give them loans
3. because they do not have access to capital markets
4. because most start up founders don't know how to approach traditional banks

State Industrial corporations engage in the development of__________.

1. institutional estates
2. industrial estates
3. individual investors
4. agricultural entrepreneurs

What is a risk of working with an angel investor?

1. They might be more personally involved in the business than the entrepreneur wants
2. They might not care about the business or their return
3. They might not give the money they agreed to
4. They might steal the business idea

____________ is carried out to know if the business is worth the time, effort and resources while __________ is made up of mostly tactics and strategies to be implemented in order to grow the business.

1. Business Plan, feasibility study
2. Feasibility study, business plan
3. Business idea, business plan
4. Feasibility study business idea

What is a business plan?

1. Written document that only outlines the business practices of the new business.
2. Written document that describes the financial aspects of the business.
3. Written document that only describes the ownership of the business.
4. Written document that describes all the steps necessary for opening and operating a successful business

Module V Institutional Support for Entrepreneurs

Which of the following is a function of SIDBI?

1. Extension of seed capital
2. Discounting of bills
3. Providing factoring services
4. All of the above.

_______ helps towards the industrialisation of rural and backwards areas.

1. Small scale industries
2. Entrepreneurs
3. MSME (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises)
4. Large-scale industries

Institutional agencies grant financial assistance to entrepreneurs for _________.

1. participation in equity capital only
2. acquisition of fixed assets.
3. working capital assistance
4. all of the above

The application for registration of a small scale unit should be submitted to the _______ .

1. Director, DIC
2. General manager, DIC
3. General manager. NSIC
4. Director, NSIC

Micro or Small Enterprise (as defined in the MSMED Act 2006) may be said to have become Sick, if

1. Any of the borrowable account of the enterprise remains NPA for ten months or more
2. Any of the borrowable account of the enterprise remains NPA for eight months or more
3. Any of the borrowable account of the enterprise remains NPA for five months or more
4. Any of the borrowable account of the enterprise remains NPA for three months or more

Which among the following best describes the definition of MSME (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises)?

1. A micro enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed R s. 25 lakh
2. A small enterprise is an enterprise where the investment in plant and machinery is more than R s. 50 lakh but does not exceed R s. 1 core
3. A medium enterprise is an enterprise where the investment in plant and machinery is more than Rs.2 core but does not exceed Rs.5 core
4. None of the above

District Industries Centres are located ____________.

1. in each state
2. in each district
3. only in selected districts
4. only in selected states

NIESBUD stands for ___

1. National Institution for Entrepreneurship & Small Business Development
2. National Institute for Enterprise & Small Business Development
3. National Institute for Entrepreneurship & Small Business Development
4. National Institute for Entrepreneurship & Small Businessman Development

DIC is headed by General Manager in the rank of ___________.

1. Assistant Director of industries
2. Non-departmental officer
3. Joint Director of industries
4. Departmental officer.

SIDBI was set up as a subsidiary of_________.

1. IDBI
2. IFCI
3. ICICI
4. SFC

SIDBI’s operations cover three areas of_______, ______ and ______.

1. financial assistance, development & support services
2. indirect assistance, direct assistance & development & support services
3. technical support, financial support and advisory
4. None of the above

The main objective of setting up DICs was to promote under a single roof all the services & support required by small &village entrepreneurs. This scheme was introduced in May ___

1. 1970
2. 1975
3. 1978
4. 1980

The major objectives of NSTEDB (National Science & Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board) are- 1. Top remote knowledge based and innovation driven enterprises; 2. To reduce generation of entrepreneurship and self-employment opportunities for S & T persons; 3.To facilitate the information dissemination; 4. To generate employment through technical skill development using S & T infrastructure.

1. Only a, c and d
2. Only a and b
3. Only a, b and c
4. All of the above

Entrepreneurship Development concentrates its attention to give motivation, awareness to all citizens & creating a favourable and healthy environment.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. Neither agree nor disagree

Which among the following statement are NOT true about Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)-

1. To provide financial assistance to the entrepreneurs under an Act of the Parliament
2. SIDBI is the principal financial institution for promotion, financing and development of small scale industries in India.
3. It does not co-ordinates functions of existing institutions engaged in similar activities
4. To initiate steps for technological up gradation and modernization of existing units

The granting of cash subsidy on the capital investment is called __________

1. Concessional finance
2. Quantum of Subsidy
3. Interest Subsidy
4. Central Investment Subsidy

The main functions of DIC is __________.

1. To collect data on consumer items.
2. Identification of entrepreneurs.
3. To prepare model schemes
4. To secure reservation of certain products for the SSIS

Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same: Entrepreneurs have a critical role to play in shaping the future of the economies of nations. By creating value through starting businesses and ventures, they ensure that the wealth of the nations increases. Similarly, by exporting goods and services, they ensure that the economies earn valuable foreign exchange that is vital for the countries to import the necessary goods and services. In addition, by creating jobs, they ensure that the people in the nation are gainfully employed. Moreover, through their social causes and championing of public good endeavours, they actualize sustainability, social justice, and environmental responsibility. Perhaps the biggest contribution or the underlying theme that runs through all these contributions is their innate ability to innovate that ensures speedy and efficient development of nations and their economies. Also, the entrepreneurial networks (EN) are the patterns of interpersonal relations emerging from entrepreneurial activities. In their everyday activities, entrepreneurs get in contact with a variety of other actors, playing important roles in the functioning of their business.

Ask any successful entrepreneur and they would say that while money is indeed important and profits are indeed essential, it is always not about the money or that making profits is the only thing that matters. Indeed, it is not enough to have a game changing idea and a great team in place unless the entrepreneur knows the art of execution. As happened during the Dotcom boom, there were many start ups with great ideas and equally great teams that promised the moon for anyone willing to listen. However, the fact that they failed in their businesses was mainly due to the gap between ideas and execution. Therefore, the entrepreneur has to be a leader who walks the talk and understands the meaning of execution. Further, leadership means that entrepreneurs must not be afraid of failure and must instead, turn adversity into triumph and transform failure into a stepping stone for success. Entrepreneurship must be seen as a starting point to transform one self and in the process become a change agent. For this to happen, the entrepreneur must be both be able to fulfil environmental, social, and economic expectations from the larger system and at the same time, must drive themselves in the pursuit of their dreams. Indeed, the balance between inner aspirations and external expectations is the most import ant determinant for success.

Indeed, great entrepreneurs are those who are willing to trust their instincts and intuition and back themselves up when the venture is yet to fructify or even making losses. In other words, if you think that you have a great idea and are executing it well with the right team, you need to persist and keep going even when the conventional wisdom says that you are getting it wrong. We often hear the term creative destruction being spoken about when talking about how some companies fade away he reads others succeed as well as maintain their leadership position in the marketplace.

What best describes the concept of entrepreneurship?

1. An entrepreneur is compared to a professional manager
2. An entrepreneur is someone who develops a business model, acquires the necessary physical and human capital to start a new venture, and operationalizes it and is responsible for its success or failure
3. An investor who is not interested to invest in ideas and concepts which they feel would generate adequate returns for their capital and investments and hence, the entrepreneur needs to have a truly innovative idea for a new venture
4. An innovator who does not have a game changing idea or a potentially new concept that can succeed in the crow demarked place

What do you understand by creative destruction?

1. Replacement of inferior products by more efficient, innovative, and creative ones.
2. As an entrepreneur to be a visionary and a person with a sense of mission
3. The employees and the managers lose their jobs and unless they are partners in the venture, their money is at stake.
4. The success or failure of the firm reflects on the entrepreneur.

Great entrepreneurship is all about:

1. Creating jobs and opportunities for others;
2. To be conscious of societal prosperity due to the venture
3. Instead of having a me, myself only attitude, translate their vision into success.
4. Option 1
5. Option 1, 2 and 3
6. Option 1 and 2
7. None of these

Which among the following is NOT on of the three areas in which the importance of entrepreneurship can be shown?

1. Innovation
2. Number of new start-ups
3. Job creation and employment
4. bureaucracy

The use of informal networks by entrepreneurs to gather information is known as ____________.

1. Secondary research
2. Entrepreneurial networking
3. Informal parameters
4. Marketing

Module I: Introduction to Operations Research (OR)

The difference between total float and head event slack is ______________.

1. free float
2. independent float
3. interference float
4. linear float

To proceed with the Modified Distribution method algorithm for solving a transportation problem, the number of

dummy allocations need to be added are______________.

1. n
2. n-1
3. 2n-1
4. n-2

A feasible solution to a linear programming problem:

1. must satisfy all the constraints of the problem simultaneously.
2. need not satisfy all of the constraints, but only a few of them.
3. must be a corner point of the feasible region.
4. must optimise the value of the objective function.

Select the correct statement:

1. EOQ is that quantity at which price paid by the buyer is minimum.
2. If annual demand doubles with all other parameters remaining constant, the Economic Order Quantity is doubled.
3. Total ordering cost equals holding cost.
4. Stock out cost is never permitted.

The objective of network analysis is to______________.

1. minimise total project duration
2. minimise total project cost
3. minimise production delays, interruption and conflicts
4. maximise total project duration

Operations research approach is ______________.

1. multi-disciplinary
2. scientific
3. intuitive
4. collect essential data

An optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines which can be drawn through squares with zero opportunity cost should be equal to the number of ______________.

1. rows or columns
2. rows and columns
3. rows + columns - 1
4. rows-columns

Service mechanism in a queuing system is characterised by ______________.

1. customer's behaviour
2. server's behaviour
3. customers in the system
4. server in the system

In program evaluation review technique network, each activity time assumes a beta distribution because:

1. it is a unmoral distribution that provides information regarding the uncertainty of time estimates of activities.
2. it has got finite non-negative error.
3. it need not be symmetrical about model value.
4. the project is progressing well.

For any primal problem and its dual, ______________.

1. optimal value of objective function is same
2. dual will have an optimal solution if primal does too
3. primal will have an optimal solution if dual does too
4. both primal and dual cannot be infeasible

Decision making is the process of making choices by identifying a decision, gathering information and assessing alternative resolutions.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Quantitative methods emphasise objective measurements and the statistical, mathematical, or numerical analysis of data collected through polls, questionnaires and surveys, or by manipulating pre-existing statistical data using computational techniques.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

If there is no non-negative replacement ratio in solving a Linear Programming Problem, then the solution is______________.

1. feasible
2. bounded
3. unbounded
4. infinite

Problem solving is the act of defining a problem; determining the cause of the problem; identifying, prioritising and selecting alternatives for a solution; and implementing a solution.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Analogical models are a method of representing a phenomenon of the world, often called the "target system" by another, more understandable or analysable system.

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Symbolic modelling is a therapeutic method that uses symbols, metaphors and modelling to facilitate positive change.

1. FALSE
2. TRUE
3. Cant say
4. None of these

Modelling is the essence of operations research. A model is an abstraction of idealised representation of a real-life problem.

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Module II Linear Programming

In graphical method, the restriction on number of decision variables is __________.

1. Two
2. Three
3. Not more than three
4. None of these

Linear programming is a:

1. Constrained optimisation technique
2. Technique for economic allocation of limited resources
3. Mathematical technique
4. All of this

Non-negativity restriction in LPP indicates that:

1. All decision variables must take on values equal to or greater than zero.
2. there is a positive coefficient of variables in objective function.
3. there is a positive coefficient of variables in any constraint.
4. there is non-negative value of resources

Term ‘Linear’ in LPP symbolises that:

1. Parameter's value remains constant during the planning period.
2. Value of decision variables is non-negative.
3. Relationship among all variables is linear.
4. It has single objective function and constraints.

Which of the following is assumption of an LP model?

1. Divisibility
2. Proportionality
3. Additively
4. All of these

The linear function of the variables which is to be maximised or minimised is called ____________.

1. Constraints
2. Objective function
3. Decision variable
4. Non-negativity constraint

The mathematical model of an LP problem is important because:

1. It helps in converting the verbal description and numerical data into mathematical expression.
2. Decision-makers prefer to work with formal models.
3. It captures the relevant relationship among decisions.
4. It enables the use of algebraic technique.

A feasible solution to an LP problem:

1. Must satisfy all of the problem's constraints simultaneously.
2. Need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them.
3. Must be a corner point of the feasible region.
4. Must optimise the value of the objective function.

The first step in formulating a linear programming problem is:

1. Plot a graph
2. Perform the sensitivity analysis
3. Identify and define the decision variables
4. Find out the redundant constraints

Constraints in LPP mean:

1. Limitations are expressed in mathematical equalities (or inequalities)
2. Assumption
3. Goal is to be achieved
4. A function is to be optimised

In graphical method, the restriction on number of constraints is __________.

1. Two
2. Three
3. Not more then three
4. None of these

Certainty means that the problem is assumed to have no probabilistic elements whatsoever. This is technically never true in the real world; some degree of uncertainty is always present.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Decision making is the process of making choices by identifying a decision, gathering information and assessing alternative resolutions.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Additively is the combined effect of the decision variables in any one equation is the algebraic sum of their individual weighted effects.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Model formulation is the step where our knowledge of a natural system is translated in mathematical form.

1. False
2. True
3. Cant say
4. None of these

Proportionality is the means that each decision variable in every equation must appear with a constant coefficient i.e., the variable is multiplied by a number and nothing else.

1. False
2. True
3. Cant say
4. None of these

The simplex method is a systematic procedure for testing the vertices as possible solutions.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

/ Module III Sensitivity Analysis

The report which shows the final values of the decision variables, the objective function, and the formula, slack or surplus,

status, and LHS value for each constraint is the:

1. sensitivity report
2. answer report.
3. limits report.
4. constraint report.

The case where there are alternate solutions or multiple optimal solutions is mostly identified in solver when:

1. when the Allowable Increase or Allowable Decrease column for the RHS of a variable has a zero value in the

Constraints Table.

1. when the Allowable Increase or Allowable Decrease column for the OFC of a variable has a zero value in the

Adjustable Cells Table.

1. shadow prices are all non-zero.
2. shadow prices are zero.

Any change in the values for the RHS (Right Hand Side) of a binding constraint of an LP problem will:

1. change the slope of the objective function.
2. not change the slope of the constraint but move it parallel to the original.
3. not change the feasibility region.
4. change the slope of that constraint.

Suppose that a MAX problem contained the following constraint: 5x + 8y ≤ 40. Then which of the following statements is true?

1. For the point (4, 2), the slack for this constraint would be zero.
2. For the point (8, 5), the slack for this constraint would have a value of 40.
3. For the point (1, 4), the slack for this constraint would have a value of 3.
4. For the point (4, 2.5), the slack for this constraint would be a positive value.

When there is a change in one of the coefficients of the objective function, and yet optimal point remains as the optimal point after the change, then:

1. the value of the new optimal objective function remains the same as the original one.
2. the value of the new optimal objective function changes and is generally different from the original one.
3. Both A and B
4. None of these

Let x = number of units of product 1 to produce, and let y = number of units of product 2 to produce. Consider the following objective function: Maximise z = x + 2y. Subject to the following constraints: x + y ≤ 12 (resource A), x ≤ 8(resource B), y ≤ 6 (resource C), x and y ≥ 0. What will be the optimal objective function value?

1. 12
2. 10
3. 16
4. 18

Which of the following statements is true?

1. Changes to an objective function coefficient will not affect the size of the feasible region.
2. If a constraint is non-binding, then its LHS is greater than its RHS.
3. Shadow prices can be found in the Answer Report.
4. An equality constraint is always non-binding.

Consider a scenario with an objective function: Minimise $14X + $17Y. Assume that the value of X in the optimal solutions zero, and the reduced cost for variable X is $3. At what objective function coefficient will X first become part of the optimal solution?

1. 17
2. 20
3. 11
4. 14

Sensitivity Analysis generally assumes:

1. we are considering a change in only one input data value at a time.
2. we are considering several changes in several input data values at a time.
3. we are considering a change in two input data values at a time.
4. None of these

If a greater than or equal to constraint is used to model a minimum requirement constraint, then:

1. it will always be a binding constraint if the objective function is a MIN.
2. it will be a binding constraint if the minimum requirement is exactly met.
3. it will always be a binding constraint if the objective function is a MAX.
4. it will be a binding constraint if the minimum requirement is exceeded.

Input-Output Coefficient is defined as the objective of making decisions.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Objective Function is defined as the objective of making decisions.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Sensitivity analysis is a financial model that determines how target variables are affected based on changes in other variables known as input variables.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

A variable is a quantity that may change within the context of a mathematical problem or experiment.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

The term ‘dual’, in general, implies two or double. The concept of duality is very useful in mathematics, physics, statistics, engineering, and managerial decision-making.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

The Dual Simplex Method will pivot from dual feasible dictionary to dual feasible dictionary working towards feasibility.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Constraint is something that imposes a limit or restriction or that prevents something from occurring. An example of constraint is the fact that there are so many hours in a day to accomplish things.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Module IV Transportation Model /

Transportation model is based on the assumption that any damage sustained while travelling has negative repercussions, it is

used to examine transportation networks and determine the most effective path for resource allocation.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

The dummy source or destination in a transportation problem is added to ______________

1. balance the transportation problem.
2. prevent solution from becoming degenerate.
3. ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit.
4. the solution not be degenerate

One disadvantage of using North-West Corner rule to find initial solution to the transportation problem is that:

1. It is complicated to use.
2. It does not take into account cost of transportation.
3. It leads to a degenerate initial solution.
4. It may provide wrong solution.

In applying Vogel’s approximation method, row and column penalties are determined by:

1. finding the largest unit cost in each row or column.
2. finding the smallest unit cost in each row or column.
3. finding the sum of the unit costs in each row or column.
4. finding the difference between the two lowest unit costs in each row and column.

The maximisation type of transportation problem can be converted into minimisation type:

1. by subtracting smallest cost element from all other cost elements.
2. by adding smallest cost element to all other cost elements.
3. by subtracting all the unit costs from the highest unit cost of the table.
4. by adding smallest cost element to all other cost elements.

When the total demand is equal to supply, then the transportation problem is said to be ______________

1. balanced
2. unbalanced
3. maximisation
4. minimisation

The transportation problem deals with the transportation of:

1. single product from a source to several destinations.
2. several products from a source to a destination.
3. single product from several sources to a destination.
4. several products from several sources to several destinations.

In northwest corner method, first allocation is made at:

1. Lower right corner of the table.
2. Upper right corner of the table.
3. Highest costly cell of the table.
4. Upper left-hand corner of the table.

The solution to a transportation problem with ‘m’ rows (supplies) and ‘n’ columns (destination) is basically feasible if number of positive allocations are:

1. m + n
2. m*n
3. m+n-1
4. m+n+1

For finding an optimum solution in transportation problem, ____________ method is used.

1. Simplex
2. Big-M
3. MODI
4. Hungarian

The Vogel's Approximation Method or VAM is an iterative procedure calculated to find out the initial feasible solution of the transportation problem.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

The Modified Distribution Method or MODI is an efficient method of checking the optimality of the initial feasible solution

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

The Least Cost Method is another method used to obtain the initial feasible solution for the transportation problem. Here, the allocation begins with the cell which has the minimum cost. The lower cost cells are chosen over the higher-cost cells with the objective to have the least cost of transportation.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

The North-West Corner Rule is a method adopted to compute the initial feasible solution of the transportation problem. The name North-West Corner is given to this method because the basic variables are selected from the extreme left corner.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Degeneracy is a term referring to the fact that two or more stationary states of the same quantum-mechanical system may have the same energy even though their wave functions are not the same.

1. False
2. True
3. Cant say
4. None of these

The multiple optimal solutions arise in a linear programming problem with more than one set of basic solutions that can minimise or maximise the required objective function. The multiple optimal solutions are called the alternate basic solutions.

1. False
2. True
3. Cant say
4. None of these

Unbalanced transportation problem is a transportation problem where the total availability at the origins is not equal to the total requirements at the destinations.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Module V Assignment Model /

An assignment problem can be viewed as a special case of transportation problem in which the capacity from each source is

_______ and the demand at each destination is ________.

1. one; one
2. unlimited; one
3. one; unlimited
4. unlimited; unlimited

An assignment problem is considered as a particular case of a __________________.

1. Transportation problem
2. Sequencing problem
3. Queuing problem
4. Game theory

Dummy row or column is added in an assignment problem:

1. To balance total activities and total resources
2. To prevent a solution from getting degenerated
3. To reduce the total cost of assignment
4. To increase the profit function

The method used for solving an assignment problem is called _____________.

1. Simplex method
2. Least cost method
3. Hungarian method
4. Steppingstone method

In marking assignments, which of the following should be preferred?

1. Only row having single zero
2. Only column having single zero
3. Only row/column having single zero
4. Column having more than one zero

______ is based on the principle that if a constant is added to every element of a row and/or a column of cost matrix, the optimum solution of the resulting assignment problem is the same as the original problem and vice versa.

1. The Hungarian Method
2. Opportunity cost
3. Transportation problem
4. None of these

While solving an assignment problem, an activity is assigned to a resource with zero opportunity cost because the objective is to ______

1. minimise total cost of assignment.
2. reduce total cost of assignment to zero.
3. reduce cost of that assignment to zero.
4. maximise total cost of assignment.

The assignment problem will have alternate solutions when:

1. there is at least one zero in each row and column.
2. all rows have two zeros.
3. there is a tie between zero opportunity cost cells.
4. two diagonal elements are zeros.

The assignment problem is always a ______________matrix

1. circle
2. square
3. rectangle
4. triangle

Maximisation assignment problem is transformed into a minimisation problem by:

1. adding each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.
2. subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.
3. subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table.
4. adding each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table.

______ is one of the topics of operations research. It consists of assigning a specific task or job to a specific person or worker assuming that there are the number of persons equal to the number of tasks available.

1. Assignment models
2. Opportunity cost
3. Transportation problem
4. None of these

______ problem is an assignment problem where the number of facilities is not equal to the number of jobs.

1. Balanced Assignment Problem
2. Opportunity Cost
3. Unbalanced Assignment Problem
4. None of these

_____ is the forgone benefit that would have been derived from an option not chosen. To properly evaluate opportunity costs ,the costs and benefits of every option available must be considered and weighed against the others.

1. The Hungarian Method
2. Opportunity Cost
3. Transportation problem
4. None of these

_____ is standard technique in linear programming for solving an optimisation problem, typically one involving a function and several constraints expressed as inequalities.

1. The Hungarian Method
2. Opportunity cost
3. Simplex method
4. None of these

A travelling salesman problem differs from an assignment problem in that distinct destinations are assigned to different sources in an assignment problem, whereas a destination is assigned to a source in a travelling salesman problem.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

An unbalanced assignment can be transformed into a balanced one.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

An assignment problem is a type of transportation problem in which the resources (such as facilities) are assignees, and the destinations (such as activities) are destinations (say jobs).

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Case on the Central Post Office Bandung

1. Introduction

The transportation problem is a subset of the people assignment problem. It appears in a wide range of decision-making

scenarios. The personnel assignment problem is distinguished by the fact that each worker is assigned to only one task. In

general, the assignment problem entails assigning n jobs to n workers, each of whom has varying levels of competency in

executing each task. The goal of the assignment problem is to assign each task to the most appropriate worker such that the

total resource expenditure to complete all the tasks is minimised. An assignment price, time spent completing tasks, travel,

and other factors can all be used to optimise a resource.

Many researchers have used assignment problems to help them address decision-making problems. Sasaki devised a novel

technique to one-sided assignment challenges. Macon and Bradbury proposed a problem with repetitive work and attempted

to include a human factor in the research. Bogomolnaia and Moulin developed a simple random assignment issue with a

unique solution. For tackling assignment problems, Naas described a specific branch-and-bound technique. Soured looked

into the continuous assignment problem in order to solve scheduling issues involving irregular cost functions. Odour et al.

tackled the issue of the efficacy of plausible solutions to assignment difficulties.

This case looks at how to solve a personnel assignment problem using the Hungarian technique. This optimisation process

was applied to a case study of the central post office in Bandung in assigning employees to deliver packets to destination

locations based on several criteria owned by each employee, as well as conducting a sensitivity analysis of data changes that

may occur in order to avoid changing the optimal assignment from the original problem.

2. Supplies and Procedures

The concept of an assignment problem based on journey time was used to address a problem for a case study on the central

Post Office in Bandung using Hungarian methodologies.

The transportation problem is a subset of the people assignment problem.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

The personnel assignment problem is distinguished by the fact that each worker is assigned to only one task.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

Researchers have used assignment problems to help them address decision-making problems.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

The goal of the assignment problem is to assign each task to the most appropriate worker such that the total resource expenditure to complete all tasks is minimised.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

An assignment price, time spent completing tasks, travel, and other factors can all be used to optimise a resource.

1. True
2. False
3. Can't say
4. None of these

/ Module 1 Introduction /

Consumer behaviour refers to ______________ and what they think when they buy a product that meets their needs.

1. Need of customers
2. Research of customers
3. Study of customers
4. All the above

Consumer purchasing behaviours could lead to a ______________.

1. Greater standard of life
2. Lower standard of life
3. Standard of life
4. None of the above

What are the external influences on purchasing decisions?

1. Religious
2. Political
3. Family and friends
4. Religious, political, family, friends, co-workers, clubs and associations

_______________is the study of groups of individuals.

1. Anthropology
2. Sociology
3. Cultural
4. Personal

Consumer behaviour refers to the study of _________________

1. People’s buying habits
2. Habits
3. Buying
4. People's lifestyle

Consumer behaviour is the focus of _____________________.

1. Economics
2. Sociology
3. Business
4. Marketer

__________ determines whether a brand succeeds or fails. Customer happiness must be at the forefront of your customer strategy in today's competitive world of a plethora of companies.

1. Customer satisfaction
2. Satisfaction
3. Consumer
4. Customer Dissatisfaction

__________________ is the study of the impact of society on individuals, such as cultural and cross-cultural issues in purchasing behaviour, national and regional cultures and so on.

1. Cultural Anthropology
2. Social
3. Cultural
4. Anthropology

_______________ is legal in the eyes of the law and is based on everyone's best interests and promotes societal welfare.

1. Ethical behaviour
2. Legal behaviour
3. Ethical consumer behaviour
4. Social behaviour

_________________ refers to a company's capacity to convert one-time customers into recurring customers and keep them from switching to a competitor.

1. Customer retention
2. Consumer
3. Potential customers
4. Churn

One of the most fundamental impacts on an individual's needs, wants, and behaviour is _________.

1. Brand
2. Culture
3. Product
4. Price

The consumer is ______________ if the performance matches their expectations.

1. Satisfied
2. Dissatisfied
3. Delighted
4. Happy

The customer or consumer is __________when actual performance exceeds the expected performance of the product.

1. Happy
2. Satisfied
3. Dissatisfied
4. Delighted

It is known as_____________________ when goods and services are purchased for use in the production or assembly of items that are sold and supplied to others.

1. Consumer Buyer Behaviour
2. Individual Buyer Behaviour
3. Business Buyer Behaviour
4. Secondary Buyer Behaviour

In terms of consumer behaviour, culture, social class, and reference group influences have been related to purchase and_______________.

1. Economic situations
2. Situational influences
3. Consumption decisions
4. Physiological influences

Which of the following is the most accurate representation of a subculture?

1. A religion
2. A group of close friends
3. Your university
4. A fraternity

The term "culture" refers to a group of people who live in a group where the norms are strongly ingrained in their members.

1. A high-context culture
2. A repressive culture
3. A low-context culture
4. None of the above

/ Module 2 External Influences on Buying Behaviour

In terms of purchasing habits, one's friends and relatives could be classified as:

1. Impersonal influence
2. Reference group influence
3. Perceptual influence
4. Institutional influence

Which of the following mental states can be regarded as affective?

1. Attitudes
2. Opinions
3. Values
4. Conative

_______________are the organisations that a person tends to utilise as an anchor point for judging his or her own views and attitudes.

1. Reference groups
2. Consumer groups
3. Social Groups
4. Customer groups

___________ is when we are not entirely happy with our purchase after buying it, and we are motivated to re-evaluate our beliefs and opinions about the purchase.

1. Cognitive dissonance
2. Post-purchase analysis
3. Evaluative dissonance
4. Affective distress

A consumer can engage in a variety of ways to alleviate cognitive dissonance after making a purchase. These are some of them:

1. Selecting forgetting information
2. Minimising the importance of an issue, decision or act
3. Reversing a purchase decision, for instance by taking a product or selling it
4. All of these

Which of the following is not one of the three types of influencers discovered by marketing agency Razor fish at various stages of the proposition acquisition process?

1. Social influence
2. Key influencers
3. Known peer influencers
4. Reference influencers

The process of separating meaningful information from irrelevant data is called as _____________.

1. Picking
2. Proposition of evaluation
3. Routine
4. Selective exposure

Which of the following processes is not essential to understanding how customers think about and learn about product sand brands?

1. Cognition
2. Perception
3. Learning
4. Personality

The desire for ______________ is the level of Maslow's requirements hierarchy that a person is in when they are striving to satisfy their most fundamental wants.

1. Self-actualisation
2. Esteem needs
3. Physiological needs
4. Belongingness

Which of the following is not a step in the process of acquiring a consumer proposition?

1. Motive development
2. Information gathering
3. Proposition evaluation
4. Perception

Which of the following mental states can be regarded as affective?

1. Attitudes
2. Opinions
3. Values
4. Conative

Which of the following processes is not essential for understanding how customers think and learn about products and brands?

1. Cognition
2. Perception
3. Learning
4. Personality

In terms of purchasing habits, one's friends and relatives could be classified as:

1. Impersonal influence
2. Reference group influence
3. Perceptual influence
4. Institutional influence

A consumer can engage himself in a variety of ways to alleviate cognitive dissonance after making a purchase. These include:

1. Selectively forgetting information.
2. Minimising the importance of an issue, decision, or act.
3. Reversing a purchase decision; for instance, by taking a product back or selling it.
4. All of the above options are correct.

The qualities of ________________ are relative advantage, compatibility, intricacy, divisibility, and communicability.

1. Alternative evaluation
2. Dissonance-reducing buying behaviour
3. Influence of product on rate of adoption
4. Habitual buying behaviour

What factors influence a buyer's satisfaction or dissatisfaction with a purchase? The link between the consumer' expectations and the product's_____________ holds the answer.

1. Perceived performance
2. Brand personality
3. Recognition
4. Consumer market

When a customer buys a product, the marketer's job isn't done. The consumer will be satisfied or dissatisfied after acquiring the product and will engage in ____________.

1. Habitual buying behaviour
2. Alternative evaluation
3. Post-purchase behaviour
4. Variety-seeking buying behaviour

/ Module III Internal Influences on Buying Behaviour-I /

Marketers can use ………………. characteristics to "find" their target market.

1. Demographic
2. Social
3. Economic
4. Political

The distribution of openness to experience results throughout the trial. _________________ means that more folks have

many at that level.

1. Higher bars
2. Lower bars
3. Middle bars
4. None of the above

In all settings and for all products, there is no one model of consumer involvement, yet there are key elements in all cases. These are ..............................

1. Input, process, output
2. Output
3. Process
4. Input

Buyers have no .............................. to products/brands and their marketing programmes.

1. Response
2. Evaluation
3. Pavlov Ian response
4. None of the above

____________ is a significant shift from the qualitative (subjective) way of assessing personality.

1. Trait theory
2. Neo-Freudian theory
3. Psychoanalytic theory
4. Scientific theory

.............................. is defined as a state of mind that encourages consumers to notice product/service offerings, consumption patterns, and consumption behaviour.

1. Consumer involvement
2. Customer
3. Involvement
4. All of the above

The impact of emotions on judgements, assessments, and decisions is significant in psychology and_________________________.

1. Consumer behaviour
2. Consumer evaluation
3. Consumer
4. Consumer thoughts

Personality traits have an impact on ......................... features, feelings, and behaviour.

1. People’s patterns of thoughts
2. Thoughts
3. Consumer
4. Social Environment

In the study of consumer behaviour, three personality theories that are well-known are:

1. Psychological, emotional, social theory
2. Consumer involvement, customer involvement and marketing theory
3. Psychoanalytic theory, Neo-Freudian Theory and Trait Theory
4. None of the above

One of the most influential elements determining how and why consumers buy goods and services is their......................

1. Social position
2. Economic Status
3. Money
4. Mind set

A ____________ is a collection of complementary goods and services from a variety of industries.

1. Marketplace
2. Meta-market
3. Resource Market
4. Market Space

____________ marketplaces encompass a wide range of business and non-profit organisations that provide goods and services for the benefit of society, such as hospitals, government institutions, and schools.

1. Consumer
2. Business-to-business (Industrial)
3. Reseller
4. Institutional

Which of the following transactions is a transaction in which the organisation makes an initial purchase of an item to be utilised to fulfil a new job?

1. Purchase of a repurchase
2. Purchase postponed
3. Purchase of a new task
4. Purchase of a repurchase that has been modified

One of the most important jobs of marketers is to ___________ and to persuade customers that the product is worthwhile.

1. make products easily visible and available
2. promote sales of products
3. differentiate their products from those of competitors
4. do marketing surveys

A plant manager in a small manufacturer wants to boost employee morale. The plant's working conditions are safe, clean, and pleasant, according to the management, and the company's recent staff expansion has given employees confidence in their positions. Which of the following activities should the management do to ensure that Maslow's hierarchy's "belongingness" demands are met?

1. Pay bonuses to workers who achieve specified goals
2. Publicly praise those workers who have been most productive
3. Set up after-work clubs, such as a softball team to allow more social interaction
4. Foster the development of skills in workers who show talent in a particular area

A supervisor wants to boost the productivity of a group of clerical workers. According to Herzberg's view, ____ would be a good incentive.

1. Offering them a better health-care plan
2. Establishing a break room where co-workers may mingle
3. Providing them with opportunities for achievement and recognition
4. Remodelling their offices to make them more pleasant and comfortable

To start motivating an unmotivated employee, a manager asks her how satisfied she is with her job's ability to give safety, social contact, self-respect, and prospects for advancement. What motivational principle is this manager most likely attempting to implement in his or her work with the associate?

1. Maslow’s need hierarchy
2. Vroom’s expectancy theory
3. Herzberg’s two-factor theory
4. McClelland’s acquired needs theory

Module IV Internal Influences on Buying Behaviour-II /

A/An _______ is a person whose opinion or advice has an impact on a decision.

1. Attitude
2. Emotions
3. Brand
4. Influencer

Companies can benefit from ___________ research by learning about consumer habits and the external and internal factors that

influence their purchase decisions.

1. Human behaviour
2. Consumer behaviour
3. Seller behaviour
4. Behaviour

__________ is a person who decides on any aspect of a purchasing choice, such as whether to buy, what to buy, how to buy, or where to buy.

1. Consumer
2. Decider
3. Buyer
4. Influencer

__________ motives refer to a person's decision to pursue a goal based on personal or imagined factors.

1. Brand
2. Emotional
3. Decision
4. Consumer

________ is a reason for acting in a given way in a specific scenario, whether deliberately or unknowingly.

1. Behaviour
2. Consumer
3. Influences
4. Motivation

People develop their own thoughts and styles as a result of a variety of internal and external ________________.

1. Influences
2. Fluencies
3. Marketing
4. Behaviour

A business organisation's specific endeavour to expand its products apart from competitors and to generate a pleasant attitude toward customers with its products is known as ___________.

1. Price placement
2. Place placement
3. Product placement
4. Package placement

A consumer or user of a product or service is known as a _____________.

1. User
2. Buyer
3. Influencer
4. Initiator

Clear my choice

The individual who makes the actual purchase is referred to as ____________.

1. Buyer
2. Influencer
3. User
4. Initiator

The proclivity to respond positively or negatively to a specific concept, item, person, or situation is known as___________.

1. Attitude
2. Emotions
3. Behaviour
4. Influence

M r. Smith purchases commodities and services for use in the manufacture of products that are sold and distributed to others .M r. Smith is a participant in __________.

1. Consumer buying behaviour
2. Post-purchase dissonance
3. Retail buyer behaviour
4. Business buyer behaviour

Which type of behaviour is demonstrated by a person while purchasing milk?

1. Extensive problem-solving behaviour
2. Routinized buying behaviour
3. Variety seeking behaviour
4. None of the above

By increasing customer share, _______________ and capturing customer lifetime value, holistic marketers can accomplish profitable growth.

1. Undermining competitive competencies
2. Building customer loyalty
3. Milking the market for product desires
4. Renewing a customer base

According to the ________, an organisation's mission is to determine the needs, wants and interests of target markets and to supply required satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than competitors while maintaining or improving the consumer's and society's well-being.

1. Customer-centred business
2. Focused business model
3. Societal marketing concept
4. Ethically responsible marketing

A _____________ is a person's way of life as reflected through their activities, interests, and perspectives.

1. Role
2. Status
3. Position
4. Lifestyle

A corporation is selling to the__________ if it creates products and services for the goal of reselling or renting them to others for a profit, or for use in the creation of more products and services.

1. Business market
2. International market
3. Consumer market
4. Private sector market

Consumers frequently pick and use brands that reflect how they see themselves, also known as the _____________.

1. Psychographics
2. Personality
3. Demographics
4. Lifestyle

/ Module 5 Consumer Decision Process

Many people believe that when a consumer gives___________, it is the most significant aspect in sales.

1. Service
2. Money
3. Travel
4. Decision

The ____________theory is concerned with how you perceive social media's usage of information in determining the root

causes of occurrences. It investigates what data is gathered and how it is combined to arrive at a causal conclusion.

1. Consumer Decision Making
2. Decision Making
3. Buying decision
4. Attribution

Before, during, and after the purchase of a good or service, customers use the _____________process to make decisions about market transactions.

1. Buying decision
2. Situational Influences
3. Situational theories
4. Decision Making

A customer ______________visualises the actions of a perceived customer. Use it to empathise with your customers as they attempt to complete a purchase.

1. Map
2. Travel
3. Money
4. Travel map

__________ is the characteristic sets of behaviours, cognitions, and emotional patterns that evolve as a result of biological and environmental variables.

1. People
2. Situation
3. Behaviour
4. Personality

_________________are temporary conditions that affect how buyers behave whether they actually buy your product, buy additional products, or buy nothing at all from you.

1. Travel Map
2. Situational Theories
3. Situational influences
4. Decision Making

The assumption behind ____________of leadership is that the most successful style of leadership varies depending on the scenario.

1. Situational Influences
2. Situational theories
3. Decision Making
4. Buying Decision

In the customer decision-making process, there are _______ basic steps. Customers investigate products before making a purchase using this method.

1. Four
2. Five
3. Six
4. Eight

Problem detection, information searching, alternative evaluation, decision making, and post-purchase evaluation are all part of the ______________ process that customers go through when determining what to buy.

1. Consumer Decision Making
2. Decision Making
3. Buying decision
4. Situational Influences

Recognising the requirement for a ___________ is the first stage in the consumer decision-making process.

1. Service or product
2. Service
3. Product
4. Goods

Which of the following notions describes a social and management process by which individuals and organisations achieve what they need and want through value creation?

1. Selling
2. Advertising
3. Barter
4. Marketing

The consumer is ________ if the performance matches their expectations.

1. Satisfied
2. Dissatisfied
3. Delighted
4. Happy

It is known as _____ when goods and services are purchased for use in the production or assembly of items that are sold and supplied to others.

1. Individual Buyer Behaviour
2. Business Buyer Behaviour
3. Consumer Buyer Behaviour
4. Secondary Buyer Behaviour

When a buyer identifies a _____, the purchase procedure begins.

1. Product or Service
2. Shop or Market
3. Need or Problem
4. Money or Status

The greater the difference between expectations and performance in terms of post-purchase behaviour:

1. The greater likelihood of repurchase.
2. The greater the customer’s dissatisfaction.
3. The less likely the consumer will be influenced by advertising.
4. The less likely the consumer will need sales confirmation and support.

The mental process by which an individual progresses from first hearing about an innovation to final adoption is known as ______________.

1. Adoption process
2. Consumption process
3. Innovation process
4. New product development process

In most cases, the consumer's purchasing decision will be to buy the most chosen brand, but there are two elements that can intervene between purchase intention and purchase decision. The easiest way to describe these two aspects is as follows:

1. The cost and availability of the product
2. The attitude of others and the cost of the product
3. The availability of the product and unexpected situational factors
4. The attitude of others and unexpected situational factors

Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Consumer Culture on a Global Scale

Global consumer culture is being driven by the spread of market-oriented enterprises into every corner of the globe. "At the same time, ideology and social process" of market mediation are "continually produced and reconstructed through constantly evolving contacts, practises, and technology," according to global consumer culture. The growth of global consumer culture is influenced by the global mobility of diverse cultural resources, such as finances capes, techno capes, ideoscapes, andmediascapes. Finances capes are the global flows of cash and currencies, as well as the myriad financial instruments that keep markets running. This can be seen in the futures market, remittances, and the microfinance revolution. Remittance companies have permitted both global workforce mobility and the transfer of spending resources to the global south. The microfinance revolution has also provided access to market forms of financing and consumption to the world's impoverished. Techno capes are cross-border fluxes of informational and mechanical technologies, both basic and complex. The world wide cell phone revolution is a good example. The formation of a feeling of global identity and memory, which is critical to any cultural identity, is dependent on global media in global consumer culture. As a result, global consumption spectacles such as millennial celebrations, the quadrennial World Cup, and Olympic festivals are linked to rise of consumer culture. Ideologieescapes are ideologies that contend for popular legitimacy and authority in states and other movements. Demand localisation and heterogeneity, as well as competitiveness and opposition to multinational businesses and brands, have all been driven by the globalisation and standardisation of modern consumer culture around the world. The anti-consumer No Logo movement, a rejectionist offshoot of Islamic fundamentalism that considers cinema, music, fashion, and other consumer culture trappings to be anathema, as well as more reformist groups like the local food and Slow Food movements, are examples of ideologies. As a result of these earth scraping processes, globalisation means that cultural exchanges are increasingly widespread, leading to an increase in interest in identity creation, not least through consumerism. As a result, global consumer culture encompasses the globalisation of desires, the responsibility to seek an individual sense of self through material symbols, the need to conform, the allure of a market-mediated material world, homogenised images of the good life, and a social fragmentation experience on the receiving end of globalisation that fuels idealist and rejectionist reactions.

__________ grow as a result of their riches, talents, and power.

1. Economical classes
2. Purchasing communities
3. Competitors
4. Social classes

The population of huge countries is going to lose a lot of its homogeneity, and thus_________________ arise.

1. Multilingual needs
2. Cultures
3. Subcultures
4. Product adaptation requirements

Geographical areas, religions, nations, ethnic groups, and age are all factors in ______.

1. Multilingual needs
2. Cultures
3. Subcultures
4. Product adaptation requirements

In recent years, ____________ has become increasingly vital for building a marketing plan.

1. Change in consumers' attitudes
2. Inflation of the dollar
3. The concept and the brand
4. Age groups, such as the teen market, baby boomers, and the mature market

Marketers are continually on the lookout for ___________ in order to find new items that are likely to be popular.

1. Opinion graphics
2. Dissonant groups
3. Cultural shifts
4. Benchmarks

Module I: Introduction

Sales cycle begins when sales people___.

1. Make contact with consumers
2. Make an offer to consumers
3. Close the sales
4. Begin prospecting

Customer Relationship software helps businesses provide ____ service.

1. Lifelong
2. Real time
3. Quick
4. Quality

SMART goals do not have which feature?

1. Specific
2. Measurable
3. Accurate
4. Relevant

Which of these is not covered under the definition of sales management?

1. Manufacturing
2. Establishing
3. Planning
4. Maintaining and regulating

The four fundamental principles of sales management are planning, coordination, ___ and monitoring.

1. Execution
2. Controlling
3. Collection
4. Service

An ideal ERP system is ___ and ___.

1. Efficient, reliable
2. Effective, adaptable
3. Expensive, scalable
4. Adaptable, scalable

A technique that is adopted by an organisation to interact with its target customers is known as ____.

1. Sales
2. Lead generation
3. Marketing
4. Communication

Sales as a function focuses on the needs of the ____.

1. Market
2. Customer
3. Product
4. Organisation

Which of these is not a follow-up activity of sales?

1. On-time delivery
2. Flawless installation
3. Repeat purchase
4. After-sales services

Marketing is a _____ activity.

1. Short term
2. Long term
3. Medium term
4. All of the above

Vendor Management System gives which of these benefits?

1. Better selection
2. Better contact management
3. Better value
4. All of the above

A fragmented sales strategy focuses on ____.

1. Selling everything that is created
2. Determine customer needs
3. Meet customer expectations
4. Supply products that meet customer needs

In sales funnel, which of these stages makes use of tools like social media campaigns and online ads?

1. Decision
2. Awareness
3. Purchase
4. Consideration

Which of these is not a KPI for sales analysis?

1. Total revenue
2. Average conversion rate
3. Lead conversion
4. Revenue distribution by sources

Which of these is a misfit for the statement: Sales managers holds the responsibility to complete the tasks by___.

1. Setting goals
2. Planning and managing sales activities
3. Leading the team
4. Evaluating sales activities

This type of ERP runs on distant servers, controlled by third parties.

1. On-premise
2. Cloud-based
3. Single tenant
4. Hybrid

Why do you think it is difficult to sell goods and services in the global marketplace. It is because of the difference in ___.

1. Culture
2. Language
3. Demand and supply
4. All of the above

 Module 2: Sales Organisation and Control

The practice of forecasting sales revenue is known as ___.

1. Price forecasting
2. Demand forecasting
3. Sales forecasting
4. Sales potential

A sales organisation is made up of ____.

1. Products
2. Services
3. Humans
4. All of the above

____ is the total number of prospects and customers that match the ideal customer profile.

1. Total addressable market
2. Served available market
3. Target market
4. Penetrated market

A sales organisations bridges the gap between ___ and an organisation's production capacity.

1. Products
2. Sales
3. Demand
4. Market

The strategy used to assess the market position is ___.

1. STWO analysis
2. SWOT analysis
3. SMART
4. TOWS

The most traditional type of sales organisation is ___.

1. Line sales
2. Line and staff
3. Functional
4. Staff and functional

This is a data-driven technique for sales forecasting.

1. Qualitative
2. Quantitative
3. AI-enabled
4. Opinion-based

For an accurate sales forecast, it is important to ___.

1. Assess historical data
2. Incorporate changes
3. Monitor competitors
4. All of the above

Long term objectives of sales organisation are defined by the ____.

1. Middle level management
2. Lower level management
3. Top level management
4. All of the above

Surveys and questionnaires are used in which method of sales forecasting?

1. Panel consensus
2. Delphi Method
3. Time Series Analysis
4. Causal Models

Functional sales organisation is based on the idea that every member in a company must have ___ jobs.

1. Similar
2. Defined
3. Distinct
4. Well-paid

In this sales team structure, sales agents are not able to acquire cross-functional knowledge.

1. Customer/ Account structure
2. Geography/ Territory structure
3. Product/ Service line structure
4. Industry/ Vertical structure

Tools like training programs, group meetings, two-way communication are used to ___.

1. Motivate individuals
2. Enable individuals to collaborate
3. Increase coordination
4. Motivate individuals to collaborate

This is a control instrument that depicts formal relations between various jobs.

1. Organisational charts
2. Organisational handbook
3. Job description
4. Job specification

In this type of sales organisation, policy formation is planned by executive group and policies are implemented by individual executives.

1. Line
2. Functional
3. Line and staff
4. Committee

Allocation of sales territories is dependent on____.

1. Transport facilities
2. Product demand
3. Competition
4. All of the above

Which of these is not true for a sales territory?

1. Sales territory is a geographical region
2. Sales territory is a set of current and future customers
3. Sales territory is the obligation and responsibility of the whole organisation
4. A sales territory is obligation and responsibility of sales team assigned to it

 Modul III Managing Sales Force

The bottoms of a stock chart are known as ____.

1. Peaks
2. Troughs
3. Tops
4. Decline

A well-executed _____ increase sales, improves customer retention and strengthens client relationships

1. Order management system
2. Sales forecasting
3. Sales force management
4. Inventory management

The process of validating the qualifications and experience of a candidate is known as____.

1. Interviewing
2. Medical examination
3. Recruitment
4. Reference check

Which of these recruitment techniques allows employees to advance their career?

1. External recruiting
2. Internal recruiting
3. Promotion
4. All of the above

A sales process is ____.

1. Product centric
2. Profit centric
3. Sales centric
4. Customer centric

Anything that changes the market in which an organisation operates is called ____.

1. Customer
2. Knowledge
3. Product
4. Trend

Information documented in papers and databases is known as ____ knowledge.

1. Tactical
2. Embedded
3. Explicit
4. Implicit

The first step of sales force process is ___.

1. Sales presentation
2. Prospecting
3. Pre-sales preparation
4. Pre-approach

The process of selecting the right individual for the right job at the right time is called ___.

1. Selection
2. Placement
3. Recruitment
4. Appointing

The ___ is the true king of the market.

1. Customer
2. Sales force
3. Advertisements
4. Price

Revenue generation, market leadership, sustained profits and organisation growth are objectives of ___.

1. Personal selling
2. Advertising
3. Marketing
4. Sales Force

Informal routines, codes of conduct and organisational ethics are examples of ___ knowledge.

1. Embedded
2. Explicit
3. Implicit
4. Tactical

Sharp observation and active engagement are required for which of the sales training methods?

1. Off-the job training
2. Lectures
3. On-the job training
4. Program instruction method

Which of these is a disadvantage of sales audit?

1. Dispute settlement
2. Conflict resolution
3. Harassment of staff
4. Fraud detection

An interview has which of these features?

1. It is a part of selection process
2. It is face to face
3. Interview includes oral assessment
4. All of the above

Which of these processes has the objectives of enhancing seller abilities to influence seller behaviour?

1. Advertising
2. Sales training
3. Marketing
4. Skill development

Which of these is not true for a downtrend?

1. Stock consistently falls
2. No additional purchases are made
3. Market participants believe that stock will continue to decrease
4. Peaks are lowers but troughs are high

 Module IV: Distribution Channel Strategy

Which of these channels involves the producer selling directly to the end-user?

1. Zero-level
2. One-level
3. Two-level
4. Three-level

The process of bringing the product or service in front of the ultimate consumer is known as _____.

1. Selling
2. Purchasing
3. Distributing
4. Advertising

These distribution routes are lengthy and easy to identify?

1. B2C
2. B2B
3. Direct
4. Hybrid

Without the use of ____, insight into supply becomes sporadic.

1. 5G
2. 4G
3. 3G
4. 2G

There are no ____ in direct channels of distribution.

1. Sales
2. Purchases
3. Discounts
4. Intermediaries

Which of these is not an online marketplace?

1. Amazon
2. eBay
3. Umber
4. Alabama

These types of conflicts take place between channel partners of the same level?

1. Inter-type
2. Horizontal
3. Parallel
4. Vertical

Data storage and integration of distribution channels is enhanced by the use of ___.

1. Internet
2. Supply chain management software
3. Cloud storage
4. Artificial intelligence

Legal entities employed to market goods of a company to the consumers are____.

1. Distributors
2. Brokers
3. Retailers
4. Agents

Which of these is an advantage of real-time inventory?

1. Flexibility
2. Timeliness
3. Reduction in inventory
4. All the above

Big data can be applicable to which aspects of supply chain management?

1. Cash flow
2. Quality control
3. Inventory supply and demand
4. All of the above

The advantages of Its include which of the following?

1. Improved asset usage
2. Improved client service
3. Safer workplaces
4. All of the above

Which of these distribution channels involves makers of products, sales teams and commercial agents?

1. Exclusive
2. Intensive
3. Selective
4. Extensive

Which of these is a benefit of using middlemen?

1. Rapid delivery
2. More profits
3. Sales at higher prices
4. Increased demand of products

AI and machine learning improve supply chain by____.

1. Lowering data security
2. Less engagement of clients
3. Using predictive modelling
4. Not involving third-party logistics

Which of these statements is not true related to the choice of distribution networks?

1. Distribution networks must be chosen by considering the type of product.
2. The choice of a distribution channel depends on the price of the products.
3. Distribution networks must be chosen by considering the type of market.
4. Middlemen are important factors that determine the choice of distribution network.

What happens when a small business employs many channels and large distribution network?

1. The small business earns more profits.
2. The small business is able to administer more control.
3. The small business has less control over the distribution channels.
4. The small business is able to reach to a larger audience.

 Module V: Logistics and Supply Chain Management

At EOQ, ___ and ____ costs are kept at minimum.

1. Ordering, carrying
2. Ordering, holding
3. Carrying, holding
4. Carrying, inventory

_____ is a major contributor to rising carbon emissions around the world.

1. Increasing sales
2. Transportation
3. Increase in population
4. All the above

The placement of inventory is critical for meeting ____.

1. Customer demands
2. Market needs
3. Customer expectations
4. Delivery deadlines

Which of these are the steps of outbound logistics?

1. Last mile delivery
2. Distribution
3. Transportation
4. All the above

What is considered important to increasing customer happiness?

1. Logistics management
2. Delivery fulfilment
3. Price and quality
4. Last mile delivery

Poor logistics planning ___.

1. Raises costs
2. Reduces costs
3. Keeps costs steady
4. None of the above

Intermodal operations entail the use of two or more ___.

1. Products
2. Services
3. Modes of transportation
4. Channels of advertising

____ is the process of managing things that have been returned to a firm.

1. Refill inventory
2. Reclamation of material
3. Reverse logistics
4. Categorising

This inventory management strategy is sales-forecast reliant?

1. Just-in time
2. Materials requirement planning
3. Economic order quantity
4. Day sales of inventory

____ planning ensures enough stock amounts are maintained while minimising storage expenses.

1. Purchase
2. Sales
3. Inventory
4. Strategic

Which of these is not an activity of core logistics?

1. Work allocation
2. Route planning
3. Scheduling
4. Automation

The use of new technologies enables businesses to ___.

1. Reduce delivery profitability
2. Create delightful customer experiences
3. Stick to the traditional revenue streams
4. Completely automate business processes

Businesses must have good logistics management to____.

1. Remain competitive
2. Remain stable
3. Meet customer expectations
4. All of the above

Which of the following is not facilitated by smart route planning?

1. Selection of the best route
2. Avoid traffic congestion
3. No monitoring of drivers.
4. Delivery of goods on schedule

Cost reduction, risk management, efficient resource allocation and using information for making strategic decisions are objectives of _____.

1. Supply management
2. Materials management
3. Physical distribution
4. Logistics management

What is the first step of logistics management?

1. Understanding customer needs
2. Planning
3. Raw material accumulation
4. Delivering goods

If demand increases, manufactures may not be able to meet the demand because of inability of find the inventory leading to lower brand image. This is a drawback of which inventory management techniques?

1. Economic Order Quantity
2. Materials requirement planning
3. Day sales of inventory
4. Just-in time inventory

Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Wal-Mart Case Analysis

Wal-Mart Inc. is a global retail firm based in the United States that operates a chain of hypermarkets, cheap department stores and grocery shops. Sam Walton created

the firm in 1962 in Bentonville, Arkansas and it was incorporated on October 31, 1969. Sam’s Club retail warehouses are also owned and operated by the company. Wal-Mart

had 11,277 shops and clubs in 27 countries as of October 31, 2018, operating under 55 distinct identities. In the United States and Canada, the corporation is known as Wall mart,

while in Mexico and Central America, it is known as Wal-Mart de México y Centro America, Ads in the United Kingdom, theSeiyu Group in Japan and Best Price in India. It owns

100% of the companies in Argentina, Chile, Canada and South Africa. Since August 2018, Wal-Mart has only held a minority part in Wal-Mart Brazil, owning 20% of the company’s

shares, with private equity firm Advent International owning the remaining 80%. Wal-Mart is the world’s largest corporation by revenue—over US$500 billion in

2018, according to the Fortune Global 500 list—as well as the world’s largest private employer, with 2.3 million employees .The Walton family controls the corporation; hence

it is a publicly listed family-owned enterprise. Through their holding company, Walton Enterprises and individual interests, Sam Walton’s heirs own more than half of Wal-Mart.

Wal-Mart was the leading grocery retailer in the United States in 2016, accounting for 62.3 present of Wal-Mart’s total sales of$478.614 billion.

In 1972, the firm was listed on the New York Stock Exchange. By 1988, Wal-Mart had become the most profitable retailer in the United States and by October 1989, it

had surpassed it in terms of revenue. Initially restricted to the South and lower Midwest, the corporation had outlets from coast to coast by the early 1990s: Sam’s Club

launched in New Jersey in November 1989 and the first California location opened in Lancaster in July 1990. In October 1990,the first major shop in the Northeast, a

Wal-Mart in York, Pennsylvania, opened. Wal-Mart’s initiatives outside of North America have shown varied results: its businesses and subsidiaries in the United Kingdom, South America and China have been extremely successful, while efforts in Germany and South Korea have failed.

In which of these countries has Wal-Mart failed to establish its foothold?

1. Germany
2. China
3. United Kingdom
4. North Korea

By 1988, Wal-Mart became the most profitable retailer in ___.

1. United Kingdom
2. Korea
3. United States
4. India

In which of these countries have the Walton’s been minority holders?

1. United Kingdom
2. Brazil
3. Germany
4. North Korea

Which statement is true about Wal-Mart?

1. Wal-Mart is a publicly listed enterprise
2. Wal-Mart is a family-owned enterprise
3. Wal-Mart is a private family-owned enterprise
4. Wal-Mart is a publicly listed family-owned enterprise

Wal-Mart is the world's largest corporation by ___.

1. Sales
2. Revenue
3. Number of stores
4. Number of departmental stores