"Module 1 : Introduction to Cross Cultural Management "

______ is a group in which members have similar backgrounds and generally perceive, interpret and evaluate events in

similar ways.

Select one:

1. Bicultural group
2. Homogeneous group
3. Token group
4. Multicultural group

"A person with an unsatisfied need will undertake goal-directed behaviour to satisfy the need." This statement is

_________.

Select one:

1. Correct
2. Incorrect
3. Partially Correct
4. Person can never have unsatisfied needs

_________ is NOT an aspect of understanding cultural differences.

Select one:

1. Cultural sensitivity
2. Cultural intelligence
3. Tolerance for all workers
4. Respect for all workers

A culture that is characterised by strong emphasis on equality in the workplace and orientation to the task is known as____________.

Select one:

1. Family Culture
2. Eiffel Tower Culture
3. Guided missile Culture
4. Incubator Culture

Which of the following is related to appreciating diversity?

Select one:

1. Treating women fairly
2. Tolerating people from different racial groups
3. Treating people from other ethnic groups fairly
4. Respecting and enjoying cultural and individual differences

Which of the following statements is TRUE about improved cross-cultural understanding ?

Select one:

1. It attracts customers.
2. It improves employee retention.
3. It attracts new employees.
4. All of these

Cultural intelligence is referred to as the ability to:

Select one:

1. interpret someone's unfamiliar and ambiguous behaviour the same way that others of the person's culture would
2. speak another language
3. observe and accept unfamiliar and ambiguous behaviours in others
4. research cultural differences

In international business, the trend to “go local” has led to local people and foreign experts performing as ________.

Select one:

1. hosts and guests
2. workers and employers
3. trainee and trainer
4. a team

Hierarchy of needs theory was given by which of the following?

Select one:

1. Fredrick Herzberg
2. Elton Mayo
3. Roethlisberger
4. Abraham Maslow

Which of the following is the purpose of diversity training?

Select one:

1. Increase workplace harmony
2. Improve communication skills
3. Increase tolerance
4. Increase cultural knowledge

Which of the following refers to basic physical needs ?

Select one:

1. Preferred Needs
2. Physical Needs
3. Psychological Needs
4. Physiological Needs

_________ refers to the management of business operations for a company. It is used to conduct business in more than one country and requires familiarity with the business regulations and the ability to carry out transactions that may involve multiple currencies.

Select one:

1. Business Management
2. Multinational Management
3. International Management
4. Cross Cultural Management

Culture is related to ___________.

Select one:

1. thinking
2. rules of behaviour
3. behaviour
4. attitude

Culture is embedded in our _________.

Select one:

1. minds
2. beliefs
3. expressions
4. gestures

_________culture is characterised by strong emphasis on hierarchy and orientation to the task. Jobs are well defined, employees know what they are supposed to do, and everything is coordinated from the top.

Select one:

1. Family
2. Eiffel Tower
3. Guided missile
4. Incubator

A group in which there are individuals from three or more different ethnic backgrounds, such as three U.S., three German ,three Uruguayan, and three Chinese managers. It is known as _______.

Select one:

1. bicultural group
2. homogeneous group

c .token group

1. multicultural group

These needs involve feeling of self-confidence and feeling good about oneself, feeling valued by others; that is, feeling that our achievements and contributions have been recognised by other people. These needs are referred to as ______.

Select one:

1. Safety Needs
2. Love and Belongingness Needs
3. Esteem Needs

d .Health Needs

2nd Module Assessment

"Professional communication can be misinterpreted or difficult to understand across languages and cultures".

Select one:

1. This statement is true.
2. This statement is not true.
3. This statement is partially true
4. Professional communication can never be misinterpreted

Which of the following is not one of Kluckhohn and Strodtbeck's dimensions of national culture?

Select one:

1. What is the role of women in society?
2. What is the nature of people?
3. What is the modality of human activity?
4. What is the conception of space?

Which of the following defined national culture as: "The collective programming of the mind which distinguishes the members of one group from another"?

Select one:

1. Geert Hosted
2. Roger Harrison
3. Roger Harrison
4. Kenichi Homage

What is 'cultural web'?

Select one:

1. It is a model used to analyse highly political cultures where a lot of political activity and power struggles impact on corporate strategy
2. It is a method of bringing together the basic elements that are helpful in analysing the nature of the culture a particular organisation possesses
3. It is a term used to describe organisations that are stuck in a particular culture and are unable to change to meet the needs of a new strategy
4. It is the network of relationships in an organisation through which the culture is transmitted to new recruits

Promoting cultural diversity in the workplace helps to enhance team performance because ___________.

1. It allows employees to learn and grow by sharing each other’s experiences.
2. Employees from different backgrounds engage with each other.
3. It enables them to come up with fresh ideas.
4. It allows them to think out of the box and increase productivity.

Select one:

1. Only B & D
2. Only A & C
3. Only A & B
4. All A, B, C, D

"Cross-cultural understanding, along with local market knowledge, lends itself the production of more effective marketing strategy and materials." This statement is _______.

Select one:

1. Correct
2. Incorrect
3. Partially Correct
4. Incomplete.

The set of shared beliefs, behaviours and attitudes associated with a large group of people is called __________.

Select one:

1. religion
2. culture
3. social framework
4. Values

Which of the following cannot be considered as a benefit of cultural diversity ?

Select one:

1. Increased productivity
2. Wider range of skills
3. Increase in employee conflict
4. Increased profits

The GLOBE researchers considered six leadership profiles. Which of the following is not a part of this?

Select one:

1. Charismatic type
2. Authoritative type
3. Participative type
4. Self-protective

When companies are open to hiring employees from all sorts of different backgrounds regardless of race, religion and culture is referred to as________.

Select one:

1. Egocentric Orientation
2. Host Country Nationals
3. Polycentric Orientation
4. Cultural Diversity

Which of the following completes the statement – “Promoting a diverse work culture is all about employees________”.

1. Getting to know their culture and lifestyle
2. Communicating about life experiences
3. Discussing their festivals and foods
4. Building trust and respect.

Which of the following completes the statement – “Promoting a diverse work culture is all about employees________”.

1. Getting to know their culture and lifestyle
2. Communicating about life experiences
3. Discussing their festivals and foods
4. Building trust and respect.

Select one:

1. Only B & D
2. Only A & C
3. Only A & B
4. All A,B,C,D

A culture distinguishes ________

Select one:

1. members of one generation from another

b .members of one nation from another

c .members of one human group from another.

1. members of one ethnic group from another

The GLOBE Project researches __________.

Select one:

1. effects of leadership all over the world.
2. creation of country clusters for better management .
3. how traits are viewed in effective leadership all over the world.
4. about better styles of managing people.

GLOBE project refers to __________.

Select one:

1. Global Leadership and Organizational Behaviour Efficiency
2. Great Leaders and Organizational Behaviour Effectiveness
3. Great Leaders and Organizational Behaviour Effectiveness Summit
4. Global Leadership and Organizational Behaviour Effectiveness

The GLOBE researchers uncovered nine cultural dimensions. Which of the following is NOT a cultural dimension ?

Select one:

1. performance orientation
2. uncertainty avoidance
3. leadership orientation
4. humane orientation

The GLOBE project investigates how cultural values are related to _________.

1. Organizational practices
2. Conceptions of leadership
3. Economic competitiveness of societies
4. Human condition of its members

Select one:

1. All A,BC,D
2. Only A & B
3. Only B & D
4. Only A & C

To succeed with managing cultural diversity, the organization has to obtain a culture where___________.

Select one:

1. people respect each other
2. people feel included
3. the employees can use their Knowledge to its full potential
4. All of these

/ Module 3 : Styles of Management and its impact on the Cross Cultural Management

"At the heart of organizations' cultures are commonly shared values. None is right or wrong, but organizations need to

decide which values they will emphasize. "The given statement is ________.

Select one:

1. Correct
2. Incorrect
3. Partially Correct
4. Incomplete.

___________ is least consistent with U.S. values in general.

Select one:

1. Individual competition
2. Emphasis on change
3. Openness and accessibility
4. Egalitarianism

Identify the statement which is true about cultural differences related to body positions and movements.

Select one:

1. In the United States, an up-and-down movement of the head means "yes" and a side-to-side movement of the head means "no."
2. In China, people generally offer a handshake that is firm and long lasting.
3. In Indonesia, people do not view squatting as a normal body position.
4. In North America, looking directly at people during formal presentations is considered a sign of disrespect.

A ________ is a distinct cultural group within a larger culture.

Select one:

1. co-culture
2. material culture
3. sub culture
4. bi-culture

It refers to the feeling of uncertainty, confusion or anxiety that people may experience when moving to a new country or experiencing a new culture or surroundings.

Select one:

1. Culture difference
2. Culture shock
3. Environmental difference
4. Environmental shock

Which of the following is a warning sign that a company’s culture is broken?

Select one:

1. Unfriendly competition between employees
2. A large amount of office gossip
3. Managers don’t follow the core values
4. All of the options

What is a “learned system of knowledge, behaviour, attitudes, beliefs, values, and norms shared by a group of people” called?

Select one:

1. Culture
2. dominant culture
3. community
4. co-culture.

"Lifetime employment, that is large companies hire regular employees’ right out of school and keep them until retirement." This is a characteristic of _____________ style .

Select one:

1. Japanese Management
2. Indian Management
3. French Management
4. Chinese Management

It is in the family business environment that the hard-working nature of ________ is particularly evident. Material success is important, not so much for the individual, but more for the sake of maintaining the family’s honour and ensuring a sound future for the family’s offspring.

Select one:

1. Americans
2. Indians
3. Africans
4. Germans

"Expect your colleagues to not be very emotive with their facial expressions and word choices. They are known for their dry wit." The given statement refers to ________ style of management .

Select one:

1. British
2. American
3. French
4. Japanese

Which of the following can be a challenge to manage Culture Change in the workplace?

Select one:

1. Resistance to Change
2. Lack of Motivation to Change
3. . Lack of Ownership
4. All of the options

The considerable variation between Americans and Chinese in the use of silence during meetings is an aspect of ________.

Select one:

1. haptic
2. proxemics
3. paralanguage
4. object language

Which of these points relates to UK style of Management ?

1. Avoid confrontational behaviour or high-pressure tactics. Avoid displays of emotion and do not argue on the basis of feelings.
2. Decision-making is slow and deliberate and so patience may be a necessary cross cultural attribute.

Select one:

1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A & B
4. None of these

Which style of management has the following characteristics:

1. The relationship among the employees and employer is like family members and taking responsibility for each other.
2. Seniority system for salaries and promotions, rather than on the basis of performance.

Select one:

1. Japanese Style of Management
2. Indian Style of Management
3. German Style of Management
4. UK Style of Management

Canada is a country that scores high on the cultural value of ________.

Select one:

1. collectivism
2. uncertainty avoidance
3. power distribution
4. individualism

Following statements refer to which style of management?

1. Missing a deadline is a sign of poor management and inefficiency, and will shake people’s confidence.
2. People in controlled-time cultures tend to have their time highly scheduled, and it’s generally a good idea to provide and adhere to performance milestones.

Select one:

1. Japanese
2. British
3. American
4. French

Which of the following is related to Organizing in USA style of Management:

1. Individual responsibility and accountability
2. Clarity and specificity of decision responsibility
3. Formal bureaucratic organizational structure

Select one:

1. Only A
2. Both A & B
3. Both B & C
4. All A,B, C

4th Module Assessment

_____________ is NOT a strategy that will help overcome communication barriers?

Select one:

1. Using straightforward language and speak clearly.
2. Paying attention to individual differences in appearance.
3. Politely insisting that only English be spoken, even in international situations.
4. Being sensitive to nonverbal communication differences.

__________ is the transfer of information from subordinate to superior.

Select one:

1. Upward communication
2. downward communication
3. diagonal communication
4. wheel communication

____________ is a person’s view of reality. How people see reality can vary and will influence their judgment and decision-making.

Select one:

1. Persuasion
2. Perception
3. Cultural difference
4. proxemics

Select the option which best supports the statement:

Trust most likely improves cross-cultural communication by ________.

Select one:

1. enabling managers to network effectively
2. encouraging the open exchange of ideas and information
3. replacing formal legal contracts for global firms
4. eliminating all variables that hinder the communication process

The main goal of cross-cultural communication training is to________.

Select one:

1. give social status
2. develop business etiquette
3. improve behaviour
4. create strong cultural ties

Which of the following is correct about cross-cultural communication?

Select one:

1. Cross-cultural communication should be avoided as it reduces group cohesiveness.
2. Effective cross-cultural communication minimizes problems stemming from misinterpretations.
3. Cross-cultural communication should be avoided as it reduces the productivity of a workplace.
4. Being able to communicate cross-culturally requires you to be ethnocentric in your outlook.

A number of steps can be taken to improve communication effectiveness in the international arena. These include________.

Select one:

1. improving feedback systems
2. providing language and cultural training
3. increasing flexibility and cooperation.
4. All of these

_______ is the study of communication through body movement and facial expression. Primary areas of concern include eye contact, posture, and gestures.

Select one:

1. Proxemics
2. Chromatics
3. Kinesics
4. Chromatics

Posture, gestures, facial expressions, and eye contact are examples of which of the following ?

Select one:

1. kinesics behaviour
2. proxemics
3. paralanguage
4. oculesics

The effectiveness of communication in the international context is often determined by which of the following ?

1. How closely the sender and receiver have the same meaning for the same message.
2. If this meaning is different, effective communication will not occur.

Select one:

1. only A
2. Only B
3. Both A & B
4. None of these

"Language frequently causes miscommunication during international business situations." Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the given statement?

Select one:

1. being unable to speak a local language
2. translating a local language too literally
3. missing meanings conveyed through body language
4. assuming that others use similar reasoning processes

Nonverbal behaviour is sometimes called as _________.

Select one:

1. Chromatics
2. Proxemics
3. silent language
4. Chromatics

_________ is the process of bargaining with one or more parties to arrive at a solution that is acceptable to all. It has been estimated that managers can spend 50 present or more of their time on this processes.

Select one:

1. Persuasion
2. Negotiation
3. Bargaining
4. paralanguage

Which of the following is a part of Upward Communication?

Select one:

1. provide feedback
2. ask questions
3. obtain assistance from higher-level management.

d., All of these

In cross-cultural communications, in order to avoid misinterpretations one should __________.

Select one:

1. avoid using colloquial expressions.
2. use two-word verbs.
3. use passive voice instead of active voice.
4. avoid using back translating procedures.

For good and effective cross-cultural communication, the language _________.

Select one:

1. should not be influenced by your intended purpose.
2. should be guided by your target audience.
3. should not include active verbs.
4. should be vague so that your message can be interpreted in multiple ways.

Facial expressions such as smiles, frowns, yawns and posture and stance represent which form of communication?

Select one:

1. Verbal Communication
2. Nonverbal Communication
3. Vertical Communication
4. Diagonal Communication

Module 1 : Overview of Production and Operation Management

____________, operating and control decisions are the three categories of decisions made by operations managers.

Select one:

1. Planning
2. Strategic
3. Inventory
4. Logistical

A production system model consists of ______.

Select one:

1. Inputs & Outputs
2. Conversion sub system
3. Control Sub System
4. All of the above

______ are required to make a series of decisions in the production function.

Select one:

1. Personnel managers
2. Marketing managers
3. HR managers
4. Operation managers

Which among the following is a correct statement?

Select one:

1. Operation Management is a subset of Production Management
2. Production Management is a subset of Operations Management.
3. Both Production Management and Operations Management are same
4. None of these

Production system model is comprised of _______.

Select one:

1. Production system
2. Conversion sub system
3. Control sub system
4. All of the above

Inputs in a production system includes ____________.

Select one:

1. organization, output
2. process, procedure
3. system, supply
4. men, materials

_______is to convert a set of inputs into a set of desired outputs.

Select one:

1. Production system
2. Conversion sub system
3. Inventory sub system
4. Control sub system

_______ is the process by which raw materials and other inputs are converted into finished goods.

Select one:

1. Inventory
2. Logistics
3. Production
4. Supply chain

Production management refers to the application of management principles to the ______ in a factory.

Select one:

1. Production function
2. Inventory function
3. Marketing function
4. Supply chain function

Shop floor planning and control is a/an ______.

Select one:

1. Strategic decision
2. Operating decision
3. Control decision
4. All of the above

___________ is one of the objectives of Production Management.

Select one:

1. right person
2. right cost
3. right quantity
4. continuous process

Manufacturing operations or processes convert inputs into ______ outputs

Select one:

1. Tangible
2. Intangible
3. Inseparable
4. Perishable

_____________ is the process in which resources or inputs are converted into more useful products.

Select one:

1. Inventory management
2. Materials management
3. Operations management
4. Logistics management

__________ is responsible for all the activities related to production of goods and services

Select one:

1. Production executive
2. Production workers
3. Production personnel
4. Production manager

________ is one of the most important factors required for production activities.

Select one:

1. Money
2. Man power
3. Time
4. Customer

Materials should be made available at right quantity, right place, right price and at right __________.

Select one:

1. size
2. time
3. forecast
4. features

Production manager must have __________ on wastages.

Select one:

1. notice
2. choice
3. control
4. plan

Module 2 : Demand Forecasting /

Long term is the correct time horizon for which of the following decisions?

Select one:

1. Facility location
2. Inventory management
3. Staff planning
4. Master production planning

The greatest smoothing effect is obtained by using:

 Select one:

1. a moving average based on a small number of periods.
2. exponential smoothing with a small weight value.
3. the root-mean-square error.
4. the barometric method.

Quantitative forecasting techniques include:

Select one:

1. Delphi method.
2. manager opinions.
3. exponential smoothing.
4. consumer surveys

The forecasting time horizon that would typically be easiest to predict for would be the ______________.

Select one:

1. medium-range
2. long-range
3. short-range
4. intermediate range

Forecasting done for a duration of 3 or more years is known as _________.

Select one:

1. Short range forecast
2. Medium Range Forecast
3. Long range Forecast
4. None of the above

Trend projection is an example of which kind of forecasting?

Select one:

1. Qualitative
2. Time-series
3. Barometric
4. Econometric

Which among the following is not a qualitative technique of forecasting

Select one:

1. Naive Approach
2. Jury Opinion
3. consumer Market Survey
4. Trend Projection

Which among the following is not a qualitative technique of forecasting?

Select one:

1. Naive Approach
2. sales force composite
3. exponential smoothing
4. Trend Projection

Which among the following is a qualitative technique of for casting?

Select one:

1. Naive Approach
2. Delphi method
3. exponential smoothing
4. Trend Projection

Which among the following is a quantitative technique of for casting?

Select one:

1. Naive Approach
2. exponential smoothing
3. Trend Projection
4. All of the above

If regression analysis is used to estimate the linear relationship between the natural logarithm of the variable to be fore cabstand time, then the slope estimate is equal to _________.

Select one:

1. the linear trend.
2. the natural logarithm of the rate of growth.
3. the natural logarithm of one plus the rate of growth.
4. the natural logarithm of the square root of the rate of growth.

Which of the following is not a qualitative forecasting technique?

Select one:

1. Surveys of consumer expenditure plans
2. Perspectives of foreign advisory councils
3. Consumer intention polling
4. Time-series analysis

A qualitative forecast:

Select one:

1. predicts the quality of a new product.
2. predicts the direction, but not the magnitude, of change in a variable.
3. is a forecast that is classified on a numerical scale from 1 (poor quality) to 10 (perfect quality).
4. is a forecast that is based on econometric methods.

In a straight line equation Y = a + b X; b is the ___________.

Select one:

1. Y-intercept
2. Slope
3. X-intercept
4. Trend

Smoothing constant is indicated with the symbol _________.

Select one:

1. Alpha
2. Beta
3. Gama
4. None of the given option

Which of the following is a quantitative technique of for casting?

Select one:

1. Naive Approach
2. Jury Opinion
3. consumer Market Survey
4. Linear Regression

Forecasting done for a duration of 3 month or less is known as _________.

Select one:

1. Short range forecast
2. Medium Range Forecast
3. Long range Fore caste
4. None of the given option

Module 3 : Facility Location and Facility Layout /

Which among the following layouts is related with ship construction?

Select one:

1. Fixed position layout
2. Cellular layout
3. Product Layout
4. Process Layout

Which of these is not a factor of location decision?

Select one:

1. Climate
2. Culture
3. Asset
4. Proximity to Customers

 “Batch-production” occurs when many _______ items are produced together.

Select one:

1. different
2. similar
3. varied
4. specified

Aircraft assembly is an example of ___________.

Select one:

1. Product layout
2. Process Layout
3. Cellular layout
4. Fixed Position layout

The objective of good layout is to _____.

Select one:

1. reduce production.
2. reduce wastages
3. reduce productivity.
4. reduce labour

Choose the odd one.

Select one:

1. Tailoring Shop
2. Cookies Production
3. Aircraft assembly
4. Sugar production

The advantage of locating a plant in urban (city) region is the:

Select one:

1. availability of land.
2. disposal of waste is easy.
3. cost of operation is low.
4. large markets for finished products.

_____________ refers to the arrangement of machinery, equipment and other industrial facilities.

Select one:

1. plant lining
2. plant location
3. facility location.
4. plant layout

Tailoring Shop is an example of

Select one:

1. Batch Production System
2. Job Shop Production System
3. Process Production System
4. Project Production System

Cellular manufacturing is an approach whereby production can be done in

Select one:

1. Small batches
2. Medium batches
3. Size of the batch does not make any impact in production
4. None of given options

Grouping together of like machines in one department is done in _______ layout.

Select one:

1. process
2. product
3. line
4. matrix

Which kind of labour force is required in case of Jobbing Production?

Select one:

1. Highly Skilled
2. Semi skilled
3. Unskilled
4. All of the above

Product layout is also called as ________ layout.

Select one:

1. process
2. product
3. line
4. matrix

Fixed position layout is adopted when:

Select one:

1. Products are of different variety
2. Product is very heavy involving assembly of large number of parts
3. Products are in large numbers
4. All of the above

Plant __________ is the process which helps in determining where the plant should be located, for maximum operating economy and effectiveness.

Select one:

1. layout
2. design
3. location
4. arrangement

______________ layout is suitable for non-repetitive or standard type of production.

Select one:

1. Process
2. Product
3. Line
4. Matrix

In _________ type of layout, machineries are arranged according to the sequence of operations.

Select one:

1. process
2. product
3. line
4. matrix

Module 4 : Production Planning and Control /

The time horizon for an aggregate plan is typically:

Select one:

1. 3 to 18 months
2. 24 to 60 months
3. 0 to 3 months
4. None of the above

In the service sector, aggregate planning for the production of high-volume intangible output is directed toward

Select one:

1. finding the size of the workforce to be employed
2. planning for human resource requirements and managing demand.
3. attempting to manage demand to keep equipment and employees working.
4. smoothing the production rate.

The feasibility of the proposed master schedule is assessed using the:

Select one:

1. aggregate plan
2. material plan.
3. rough-cut capacity plan.
4. available-to-promise inventory.

In aggregate planning, planners avoid focusing on individual products or services because:

Select one:

1. capacity can almost always be allocated to different products or services.
2. customers whose demand can't be satisfied out of existing inventory can always be satisfied with other products or back orders.
3. costs for individual products or services are almost impossible to calculate.
4. focusing on a group of similar products or services tends to be more accurate.

Which one of these is not related to the master scheduling process?

Select one:

1. yield management
2. rough-cut capacity planning
3. time fences
4. available-to-promise

Output measures of capacity are preferred for:

Select one:

1. High-volume processes
2. High customization
3. Flexible flow processes
4. None of the above

The operations area input to the aggregate plan includes:

Select one:

1. Product design changes
2. Workforce capacities
3. Demand forecasts
4. Cost data

Which of the following is NOT a capacity option of aggregate planning?

Select one:

1. varying production rates through overtime or idle time
2. back ordering during high-demand periods
3. changing inventory levels
4. subcontracting

The aggregate planning strategy that is most likely to impact adversely upon the productivity of manufacturing workers is:

Select one:

1. Layoff of workers
2. Building anticipation inventory
3. Hiring of temporary workers
4. Use of overtime

Utilisation is measured by :

Select one:

1. Effective capacity / Design capacity
2. Actual output / Design capacity
3. Actual output / Effective capacity
4. Design capacity / Actual output

Which of the following functions of the production planning and controlling is related to the time table of activities?

Select one:

1. Routing
2. Scheduling
3. Dispatching
4. Expediting

Scheduling deals with:

Select one:

1. Number of jobs to be done on a machine
2. Number of machine tools used to do a job
3. Different materials used in the product
4. Fixing up starting and finishing times of each operation in doing a job

Scheduling shows:

Select one:

1. Total cost of production
2. Total material cost
3. Which resource should do which job and when
4. The flow line of materials

Capacity decisions have a direct influence on performance of production system in respect of ___________.

Select one:

1. Delivery performance
2. Quality control
3. Plant size
4. Manpower

Aggregate planning solves problems involving:

Select one:

1. aggregate decisions or stock keeping unit (SKU) level decisions.
2. stock keeping unit (SKU) level decisions rather than aggregate decisions.
3. aggregate decisions rather than stock keeping unit (SKU) level decisions.
4. aggregate decisions and stock keeping unit (SKU) level decisions.

What information does a master production schedule provide that an aggregate plan does not?

Select one:

1. Revenue information for the planning period
2. Specific product family production information
3. Expense information for the planning period
4. A specific machine schedule for each order

Aggregate planning, to be effective, requires inputs from:

Select one:

1. throughout the supply chain.
2. all customers.
3. all departments
4. all suppliers.

Module 5: Inventory Management, Supply Chain Management & Logistics Management and Foundations of Quality

Processes that operate with six sigma quality over the short term are assumed to produce long-term defect levels below

____________________defects per million opportunities.

Select one:

2. 2.4
3. 3.4
4. 4.4
5. 5.4

Which of the following is not a Dimension of Quality?

Select one:

1. Reliability
2. Features
3. Durability
4. Design

While setting quality objectives, ________ needs to be considered.

Select one:

1. Material quality
2. Customer
3. Market demand
4. All of the above

Which of the following is a step in sustaining of 5S?

Select one:

1. Determine the 5S level of achievement - the overall grade.
2. Perform worker-led routine 5S checks using the 5S check list
3. conduct scheduled, routine checks by team leads or supervisors or by people from outside of the workgroup
4. All of the above

__________ is a management approach for long term success through customer satisfaction.

Select one:

1. TQM
2. ISO9001
3. six-sigma
4. quality-circle

The core idea of lean manufacturing is to work on eliminating waste from the manufacturing process.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. Can't say
4. Mostly false

Which of the following is a step in systematic cleaning of 5S?

Select one:

1. Identify points to check for performance
2. Determine acceptable performance.
3. Mark equipment and controls with visual indicators
4. All of the above

Which of the following is a step in standardising of 5S?

Select one:

1. Establish a routine check sheet for each work area
2. Establish and document standard methods across similar work areas.
3. Document any new standard methods for doing the work.
4. All of the above

Which of the following is a step in simplifying process of 5S?

Select one:

1. Determine a location for each item based on frequency of use and proper safety zone
2. Develop shadow boards and label items - a home for everything.
3. Determine how to replenish supplies
4. All of the above

Inventory classified on the basis of annual consumption value is known as _____________.

Select one:

1. ABC Analysis
2. HML Analysis
3. VED Analysis
4. SOS Analysis

JIT stands for Just-in _____________.

Select one:

1. time
2. term
3. test
4. today

Six-Sigma can help many __________ to design better products with less wastage and at a minimum possible cost.

Select one:

1. companies
2. retailers
3. engineers
4. customers

According to the principle of Kaizen, people is the most important __________ for any organization.

Select one:

1. factor
2. feature
3. asset
4. team

Kaizen is a _________ term.

Select one:

1. Greek
2. Latin
3. Japanese
4. Korean

In manufacturing a product, cost can be kept within control through_________ reduction.

Select one:

1. profit
2. loss
3. wastage
4. time

__________ concept is used to measure the company’s quality.

Select one:

1. Production system
2. Sales forecast
3. Six sigma
4. ISO 9001

Better _________ of the product improves consumers satisfaction, this enhances the goodwill of the organization.

Select one:

1. quantity
2. quality
3. shape
4. variations

Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

The stadium used by Manchester City Football Club was originally designed to be the central arena for the Manchester bid to

host the 1996 Olympics. When the games were awarded to Atlanta, the City of Manchester refocused their efforts on the

Commonwealth Games bid for 2002, which they won.

The stadium was originally planned as an 80,000 seat arena for the Olympics. This was revised down to a 60,000 capacity

stadium for the Commonwealth Games. However, the Council’s main concern was that the stadium should have a sustainable

future so the plan was revised down again to accommodate a future for the stadium as the new ground for Manchester City

football club to replace their Main Road Stadium in Moss Side. The revised plan meant that the capacity for the Games in

2002 was 38,000 which then rose to 48,000 in 2003 when it was handed over to Manchester City football club. Construction of

the stadium took 3,000 workers just over 2 years to complete and was handed over to the organisers four months ahead of

the games. The Commonwealth Games was a spectacular success both for British athletes and the City of Manchester.

However, there was no sentiment shown when the bulldozers moved in just hours after the closing ceremony. The track was

removed, a third tier of seating was added and the central pitch was lowered. The conversion costs of £30 million were met by

the football club.

This plan was not without criticism, as there were many calls by leading athletes for a large athletics stadium to be kept.

However, the stadium from both Sydney and Atlanta Olympics became rugby and baseball grounds respectively. The

Manchester Stadium has also been used as a concert venue and has a capacity for 60,000 fans, one of Europe’s largest open

air concert venues.

In 2010, an application was granted to expand the capacity to 60,000 for football fans. In 2002 the Manchester

Commonwealth stadium had two tiers of seating, but after the stadium’s conversion to a football ground, it had three tiers of

seating. There are 2,000 parking spaces at the stadium itself with a further 8,000 spaces provided locally, there are 2 train

stations within a half hour walk of the ground and for concerts and special events a bus service is set up. The stadium is used

twice weekly during the football season, hosts conferences, major sporting events and even weddings.

The original capacity for the Commonwealth Games stadium was reduced from 60,000 to 38,000 in year 2002.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. can't say
4. Mostly false

Construction of the stadium took 3,000 workers just over 2 years to complete and was handed over to the organisers four months ahead of the games.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. can't say
4. Mostly false

Application was granted to expand the capacity of Manchester Stadium to 60,000 for football fans in the year 2010.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. can't say
4. Mostly false

The stadium from both Sydney and Atlanta Olympics became baseball and rugby grounds respectively.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. can't say
4. Mostly false

weekly during the football season, hosts conferences, major sporting events and even weddings.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. can't say
4. Mostly false

Module 1: Introduction To Indian Financial System /

Which of the following instruments are traded in a capital market?

Select one:

1. U.S. government agency securities
2. Negotiable bank CDs
3. Repurchase agreements
4. Eurodollars

Finance Function comprises_________.

Select one:

1. Safe custody of funds only
2. Expenditure of funds only
3. Both a and b
4. Procurement and effective use of funds

Intermediaries who are agents of investors and match buyers with sellers of securities are called________.

Select one:

1. investment bankers.
2. traders.
3. brokers.
4. dealers.

What is the minimum amount at which Commercial Paper can be issued?

Select one:

1. The minimum amount for Commercial Papers is 5 lakhs.
2. The minimum amount for Commercial Papers is 5 Cores.
3. The minimum amount for Commercial Papers is 1 lakh.
4. The minimum amount for Commercial Papers is 1 Core.

The organized financial system includes _____________.

Select one:

1. Commercial banks
2. Indigenous banks
3. Foreign banks
4. None of these

The amount which is paid at the time of maturity of the bond is equal to:

Select one:

A .Face Value

1. Yield
2. Coupon
3. Discounted Price

Type of market in which securities with less than one year maturity are traded, is classified as_______.

Select one:

1. Money Market
2. Capital Market
3. Transaction Market
4. Global Market

In primary markets, the property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued security is concerned as:

Select one:

1. Increased Liquidity
2. Decreased Liquidity
3. Money Flow
4. Large Funds

The financial market for long-term funds is known as_________.

Select one:

1. Capital market
2. Money market
3. Primary market
4. Secondary market

In capital market the major suppliers of trading Instruments are:

Select one:

1. Liquid Corporations
2. Government and corporations
3. Instrumental Corporations
4. Manufacturing Corporations

A corporation acquires new funds only when its securities are sold___________.

Select one:

1. in the secondary market by an investment bank.
2. in the primary market by an investment bank.
3. in the secondary market by a stock exchange broker.
4. in the secondary market by a commercial bank.

Which of the following statements about financial markets and securities are true?

Select one:

1. A bond is a long-term security that promises to make periodic payments called dividends to the firm’s residual claimants.
2. A debt instrument is intermediate term if its maturity is less than one year.
3. A debt instrument is long term if its maturity is ten years or longer.
4. The maturity of a debt instrument is the time (term) to that instrument’s expiration date.

What is the maximum and minimum maturity of Certificate of Deposit issued by financial Institutions?

Select one:

1. Certificate of deposit issued by financial Institutions are for 1 year to 3 years.
2. Certificate of deposit issued by financial Institutions are for 7 days to 364 days.
3. Certificate of deposit issued by financial Institutions are for 15 days to 90 days.
4. None of these

Every financial market has the following characteristic:

Select one:

1. It determines the level of interest rates
2. It allows common stock to be traded.
3. It allows loans to be made.
4. It channels funds from lenders-savers to borrowers-spenders.

The presence of transaction costs in financial markets explains, in part, why___________?

Select one:

1. financial intermediaries and indirect finance play such an important role in financial markets.
2. equity and bond financing play such an important role in financial markets
3. corporations get more funds through equity financing than they get from financial intermediaries.
4. direct financing is more important than indirect financing as a source of funds.

Which of the following can be described as involving direct finance?

Select one:

1. A corporation’s stock is traded in an over-the-counter market.
2. A corporation buys commercial paper issued by another corporation.
3. A pension fund manager buys commercial paper from the issuing corporation.
4. Both (B) and (C) of the above.

Which of the following statements about financial markets and securities are true?

Select one:

1. Most common stocks are traded over-the-counter, although the largest corporations have their shares traded at organized stock exchanges such as the New York Stock Exchange.
2. A corporation acquires new funds only when its securities are sold in the primary market
3. Money market securities are usually more widely traded than longer-term securities and so tend to be more liquid.
4. All of above are true

Module 2 : Financial Services & Merchant Banking /

Merchant bankers perform the following role(s) ___________.

Select one:

1. Market new stock and bond issues for firms.
2. Provide advice to the firms as to market conditions, price, etc.
3. Provide consultancy services for expansion e t c
4. All of these

Merchant banking is generally ________ in character.

Select one:

1. National
2. International
3. Rural
4. None of these

The first bank to set up a separate merchant banking division in India.

Select one:

1. Punjab National Bank
2. Standard Charted Bank
3. National & Grin days Bank
4. National city bank.

Lead merchant banker should advice the issuer to enter into ____________ with a particular intermediary for the purpose of issue management.

Select one:

1. Memorandum of Understanding
2. R O C
3. Agreement
4. Arrangement.

The _______ has to manage the post-issue activities.

Select one:

1. Merchant banker
2. Bank promoter
3. Lead Manager
4. All of the above

Financial service companies exclude ________________.

Select one:

1. Commercial banks
2. Insurance companies
3. Sole proprietorship
4. Crepitating agencies.

Functions of financial services exclude ______________________.

Select one:

1. Mobilization of savings
2. Allocation of fund
3. Specialized services
4. Collection of tax.

Find out odd one? Authorization criteria of merchant bankers.

Select one:

1. All business performed
2. Professional competence
3. Capital adequacy
4. Past experience.

______ is regarded as the fourth element of the financial system.

Select one:

1. Financial Services
2. Financial Markets
3. Financial instruments
4. Financial institutions

Role of merchant bankers _____________.

Select one:

1. Mobilization of funds
2. Promotional function
3. Innovation
4. All of these

All merchant bankers must have minimum net worth of ___________.

Select one:

1. 5 cores
2. 1 core
3. 10 chores
4. 20 cores

Which of the following is not a fund based financial services?

Select one:

1. Credit rating agencies
2. Venture capital
3. Consumer credit
4. Factoring.

Merchant bank is an organization that_______.

Select one:

1. Underwrites securities for corporations
2. Advice clients on mergers
3. Involved in ownership of commercial ventures
4. All of these

Issue management is an important function of ______ and ______.

Select one:

1. Public banker, Merchant banker
2. Lead banker, Private banking
3. Merchant banker, lead manager
4. None of these

Financial services through the network of elements such as ________, serve the needs of individuals, institutions and corporate.

Select one:

1. Financial institutions
2. Financial markets
3. Financial instruments
4. All of above

___________ covers the entire range of services provided by a merchant banker.

Select one:

1. Project counselling
2. Corporate counselling
3. Credit syndication
4. Market makers.

Category 1 merchant bankers can act as:

Select one:

1. Only as advisor
2. Underwriter
3. All issue management functions.
4. Consultant

Module 3 : Venture Capital and Private Equity /

________________ nurturing means the continuous & on going investment of the VCF through representation in the board of the

venture.

Select one:

1. Hands on
2. Hands off
3. Hands holding
4. All of these

VCFs can be structured as an investment trust under the Indian act ________________.

Select one:

1. 1883
2. 1882
3. 1884
4. 1885

Venture capital organized in ________________.

Select one:

1. 1995
2. 1954
3. 1952
4. 1950

________________ types of valuation method can be adopted by VCFs.

Select one:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

The P/E firm takes the help of _______ for valuation & legal advice.

Select one:

1. Agents
2. Brokers
3. Advisors
4. RBI

. ________________ act as an intermediary to link up the sources of ideas and the sources of fund.

Select one:

1. Venture Capital
2. Merchant Banking
3. Leasing
4. None of these

Financial services offered financing risk project to provide which of the Following?

Select one:

1. Seed Capital
2. Venture Capital
3. Primary Fund
4. Secondary Fund

The _____________ partner is also entitled to share in profits of the private equity funds investment .

Select one:

1. Legal
2. General
3. Limited
4. Partnership

Private Equity is regulated by ______.

Select one:

1. IRDA
2. LIC
3. UTI
4. SEBI

A rapidly growing source of new money for institutional venture capital funds is ___________

Select one:

1. Pension Funds
2. Bank Loans
3. Individuals
4. Government Grants

The purpose of valuation is to assess the ___________ and viability of the venture & to divide of the percentage of the VCFownership in the new venture.

Select one:

1. Feasibility
2. Profitability
3. Availability
4. None of these

In the ___________ method the entire earnings stream of the venture investment is considered.

Select one:

1. Conventional Valuation Method
2. First Chicago Method
3. Revenue Multiplier Method
4. None of these.

The venture capital process involves post investment Services is also called ___________.

Select one:

1. Investment nurturing
2. Turn around financing
3. Seed money
4. All of these

___________ is an interest free loan provided by VCFs without any predetermined repayment schedule.

Select one:

1. Conventional loan
2. Income notes
3. Conditional loan
4. None of these.

In ___________ method the starting time & exit time of the venture investment is only considered.

Select one:

1. First Chicago method
2. Revenue multiplier method
3. Conventional valuation method
4. All of these

___________ is used to estimate the value of venture capital investment.

Select one:

1. Dual structuring
2. Revenue multiplier
3. First Chicago method
4. None of these

Private equity is a ______ investment fund, as its Current market price cannot be easily determined and cannot be transferred for certain period of time

Select one:

1. Close ended
2. Open ended
3. Fund
4. Active

CASE STUDY
ABC Ltd. is a global leader in technology services and consulting. It has enable clients in
45 countries to create and execute strategies for their digital transformation. From engineering to application development,knowledge management and business process management, it helps their clients find the right problems to solve, and tosolve these effectively. Their team of 198,000+ innovators, across the globe, is differentiated by the imagination, knowledgeand experience, across industries and technologies that they bring to every project they undertake.
Today, businesses operate in an unprecedentedly fluid environment. The technology landscape is turning highly complex as itevolves to meet the demands of a competitive marketplace and an experiential economy. At the same time, customers areincreasingly demanding simple, new, and convenient experiences.
ABC Consulting helps global corporations - in over 20 countries - develop unique solutions to address their complex businesschallenges and create value through sustainable innovation. As pragmatic consultants with an eye on execution, they helpyou design and achieve market-leading performance roadmaps by combining creative thinking, technology expertise, andglobal reach.
1.
Details of Bonus Issue
The Company has allotted 1, 14, 84,72,332 fully paid-up equity shares of face value ` 5 each in June 2015 to the shareholdersof the Company in proportion of 1:1 and consequently, the number of shares increased from 1,14,84,72,332 to 2,29,69,44,664.
The Company allotted 57,42,36,166 fully paid up equity shares of face value ` 5 each in December 2014 to the shareholders ofthe Company in proportion of 1:1 and consequently, the number of shares increased from 57,42,36,166 to 1,14, 84,72,332.
It was on October 10, 2014, that the company had recommended a bonus issue of one equity share for every equity shareheld (1:1 bonus issue).
It fixed December 3, 2014, as the record date for the purpose of allotment of bonus shares / stock dividend.
The company has mentioned in the Board of Directors report that sufficient cash balance has been kept by the company tomeet its strategic objectives. The company presently generates sufficient cash internally to finance all its operational,financing and investment requirements. Announcement date of Bonus Issue – 24/4/2015
Ex-Bonus Date – 15/6/2015
Ex-Bonus date is the date:
Select one:
a.
On which the share price is adjusted on stock exchanges.
b.
On which the share price is decreased on stock exchanges.
c.
On which the share price is increased on stock exchanges.
d.
which is before the record date.
Question
3
Not yet answered
Marked out of 3.00
Which among the following are the effects of Bonus Issue?
Select one:
a.
Share capital gets increased
b.
Liquidity in the stock increases
c.
Accumulated profits get reduced
d.
All of the above
Clear my choice
A listed company may issue bonus shares to its members if authorized by:
Select one:
a.
Memorandum of Association
b.
Articles of Association
c.
Both of above
d.
None of these

"Module 1 : Introduction to Cross Cultural Management "

______ is a group in which members have similar backgrounds and generally perceive, interpret and evaluate events in

similar ways.

Select one:

1. Bicultural group
2. Homogeneous group
3. Token group
4. Multicultural group

"A person with an unsatisfied need will undertake goal-directed behaviour to satisfy the need." This statement is

_________.

Select one:

1. Correct
2. Incorrect
3. Partially Correct
4. Person can never have unsatisfied needs

_________ is NOT an aspect of understanding cultural differences.

Select one:

1. Cultural sensitivity
2. Cultural intelligence
3. Tolerance for all workers
4. Respect for all workers

A culture that is characterised by strong emphasis on equality in the workplace and orientation to the task is known as____________.

Select one:

1. Family Culture
2. Eiffel Tower Culture
3. Guided missile Culture
4. Incubator Culture

Which of the following is related to appreciating diversity?

Select one:

1. Treating women fairly
2. Tolerating people from different racial groups
3. Treating people from other ethnic groups fairly
4. Respecting and enjoying cultural and individual differences

Which of the following statements is TRUE about improved cross-cultural understanding ?

Select one:

1. It attracts customers.
2. It improves employee retention.
3. It attracts new employees.
4. All of these

Cultural intelligence is referred to as the ability to:

Select one:

1. interpret someone's unfamiliar and ambiguous behaviour the same way that others of the person's culture would
2. speak another language
3. observe and accept unfamiliar and ambiguous behaviours in others
4. research cultural differences

In international business, the trend to “go local” has led to local people and foreign experts performing as ________.

Select one:

1. hosts and guests
2. workers and employers
3. trainee and trainer
4. a team

Hierarchy of needs theory was given by which of the following?

Select one:

1. Fredrick Herzberg
2. Elton Mayo

c.

Rothlisberger

1. Abraham Maslow

Which of the following is the purpose of diversity training?

Select one:

1. Increase workplace harmony
2. Improve communication skills
3. Increase tolerance
4. Increase cultural knowledge

Which of the following refers to basic physical needs ?

Select one:

1. Preferred Needs
2. Physical Needs
3. Psychological Needs
4. Physiological Needs

_________ refers to the management of business operations for a company. It is used to conduct business in more than one country and requires familiarity with the business regulations and the ability to carry out transactions that mayinvolve multiple currencies.

Select one:

1. Business Management
2. Multinational Management
3. International Management
4. Cross Cultural Management

Culture is related to ___________.

Select one:

1. thinking
2. rules of behaviour
3. behaviour
4. attitude

Culture is embedded in our _________.

Select one:

1. minds
2. beliefs
3. expressions
4. gestures

_________culture is characterised by strong emphasis on hierarchy and orientation to the task. Jobs are well defined, employees know what they are supposed to do, and everything is coordinated from the top.

Select one:

1. Family
2. Eiffel Tower
3. Guided missile
4. Incubator

A group in which there are individuals from three or more different ethnic backgrounds, such as three U.S., three German ,three Uruguayan, and three Chinese managers. It is known as _______.

Select one:

1. bicultural group

b.homogeneous group

c.token group

d.multicultural group

17 Question

These needs involve feeling of self-confidence and feeling good about oneself, feeling valued by others; that is, feelingthat our achievements and contributions have been recognised by other people. These needs are referred to as ______.

Select one:

a.Safety Needs

b.Love and Belongingness Needs

c.Esteem Needs

d.Health Needs

Which approach to conflict management can be best described as both highly coop- erative and highly assertive?
Select one:
a. competition
b. compromise
c. accommodation
d. collaboration
Clear my choice
_______ is the degree to which group members enjoy collaborating with the other members of the group and are motivated to
stay in the group.
Select one:
a. Leadership
b. Learning
c. Team Effectiveness
d. Cohesiveness
Clear my choice
Dashboard / My courses /
2_Sem 3_HR208 /
Module 5 : Group Behaviour, Conflicts and Organizational Change
/
5th Module Assessment
?
Question
3
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Question
4
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the definition of a group?
Select one:
a.
A permanent group of people working under a single supervisor.
b.
Two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent , who have come together to achieve a particular objective.
c.
Set of two inviduals set by formal authority within an organisation .
d.
None of these
Clear my choice
One of the problems with the suppression of conflicts is that it _____.
Select one:
a.
creates winners and losers
b.
is often a temporary solution that sets the stage for future conflict
c.
works only with emotional conflicts
d.
works only with substantive conflicts
Clear my choice
?
Question
5
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Question
6
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
This is a formal group, determined by the organization’s hierarchal chart and composed of the individuals that report to aparticular manager. This group is known as ___________.
Select one:
a.
Command group
b.
Task group
c.
Friendship group
d.
Interest group
Clear my choice
"Group Dynamics is a process, wherein the attitude and behaviour of a member influence the behaviour of another or othermembers of the group, either by choice or circumstances." The given statement is __________.
Select one:
a.
TRUE
b.
FALSE
c.
Partially True
d.
Group Dynamics is NOT a process.
Clear my choice
?
Question
7
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Question
8
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Most conflicts have their roots in uncetanity and negotiation is the way of managing the______.
Select one:
a.
Resultant risk
b.
Failure
c.
Uncertanity
d.
Inputs
Clear my choice
The process which begins when one party perceives that the other has frustrated or is about to frustrate , some concern of his, is known as _______.
Select one:
a.
Uncertanity
b.
Conflict
c.
Risk
d.
Poor Management
Clear my choice
?
Question
9
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Question
10
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Lewin's Process consists of which of the following ?
Select one:
a.
Unfreezing Stage
b.
Changing Stage
c.
Refreezing Stage
d.
All of these
Clear my choice
Which of the Following is the last stage in the process of group development?
Select one:
a.
Forming
b.
Adjourning
c.
Performing
d.
Norming
Clear my choice
?
Question
11
Not yet answered
Marked out of 2.00
Question
12
Not yet answered
Marked out of 2.00
Which of the following can be a reason for group formation ?
A. Opportunity for interaction
B. Personal Characteristics
C. Interest and goals
D. Influence and power
Select one:
a.
All A,B, C & D
b.
Only B & C
c.
Only A & B
d.
Only C & D
Clear my choice
A change agent can be defined as______.
Select one:
a.
A top management expert who knows all parts of the organization
b.
External consultants who analyze the organization and recommend the changes that need to take place
c.
The person or group in an organization that people try to influence in order to get their personal concerns addressedwithin the organization's strategy
d.
A person or group of people who take on the role of promoting change within an organization
Clear my choice
?
Question
13
Not yet answered
Marked out of 2.00
Question
14
Not yet answered
Marked out of 2.00
Which model best predicts the process by which most groups will come together and start performing?
Select one:
a.
Five stage model of Group development
b.
Equilibrium Model
c.
Decision making Model
d.
Herzberg Model
Clear my choice
What is the element of group structure that helps all members understand what behaviors are expected of them?
Select one:
a.
Roles
b.
Status
c.
Norms
d.
Size
Clear my choice
?
Question
15
Not yet answered
Marked out of 4.00
Question
16
Not yet answered
Marked out of 4.00
The exact triggers for change will depend on the context of an organisation and its industry. Identify from the following thatcould act as change triggers ?
Select one:
a.
Arrival of new entrants into the market, or mergers/acquisitions between existing competitors in the industry.
b.
Changes in level or intensity of competition (prompting a need to gain or protect market share).
c.
New laws or regulations affecting an industry; or changes in government legislation more generally.
d.
All of these
Clear my choice
Harry gets together with ten other people he knows each month and discusses a book that a member of the group haspicked for everyone to read. What kind of group is this?
Select one:
a.
Command group
b.
Task group
c.
Friendship group
d.
Interest group
Clear my choice
? Case Study - Module 5 - 1 Hour Appx. Jump to...
Module 5 Feedback Form ?
?
Question
17
Not yet answered
Marked out of 4.00
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a group over an individual?
Select one:
a.
Cohesiveness
b.
Social Loafing
c.
Extra Version
d.
Decision Fatigue

CASE STUDY
Patrick was a trainer for Starcity Manufacturers, a large builder of prefabricated homes. Starcity had hired Patrick fresh fromgraduate school with a master’s degree in English. At first, the company put him to work writing and revising companybrochures and helping with the most important correspondence at the senior level. But soon, both Patrick and seniormanagement officials began to notice how well he worked with executives on their writing, how he made them feel moreconfident about it, and how, after working with an executive on a report, the executive often was much more eager to take onthe next writing task.So Starcity moved Patrick into its prestigious training department. The company’s trainers worked withthousands of supervisors, managers, and executives, helping them learn everything from new computer languages to timemanagement skills to how to get the most out of the workers on the plant floor, many of whom were unmotivated highschool dropouts. Soon Patrick was spending all his time giving short seminars on executive writing as well as coaching hisstudents to perfect their memos and letters.
Patrick’s move into training meant a big increase in salary, and when he started working exclusively with the company’s topbrass, it seemed as though he got a bonus every month. Patrick’s supervisor, Mirela Albert, knew he was making more thanmany executives who had been with the company three times as long, and probably twice as much as any of his graduateschool classmates who concentrated in English. Yet in her biweekly meetings with him, she could tell that Patrick wasn’thappy.When Albert asked him about it, Patrick replied that he was in a bit of a rut. He had to keep saying the same thingsover and over in his seminars, and business memos weren’t as interesting as the literature he had been trained on. But then,after trailing off for a moment, he blurted out, "They don’t need me!" Since the memos filtering down through the companywere now flawlessly polished, and the annual report was 20 percent shorter but said everything it needed to, Patrick’s desireto be needed was not fulfilled.The next week, Patrick came to Albert with a proposal: What if he started holding classes forsome of the floor workers, many of whom had no future within or outside the company because many could write nothingbut their own names? Albert took the idea to her superiors. They told her that they wouldn’t oppose it, but Patrick couldn’tpossibly keep drawing such a high salary if he worked with people whose contribution to the company was compensated atminimum wage.
Patrick agreed to a reduced salary and began offering English classes on the factory floor, which were billed by management(who hoped to avoid a wage hike that year) as an added benefit of the job. At first only two or three workers showed up—andthey, Patrick believed, only wanted an excuse to get away from the nailing guns for awhile. But gradually word got aroundthat Patrick was serious about what he was doing and didn’t treat the workers like kids in a remedial class.At the end of theyear, Patrick got a bonus from a new source: the vice president in charge of production. Although Patrick’s course tookworkers off the job for a couple of hours a week, productivity had actually improved since his course began, employeeturnover had dropped, and for the first time in over a year, some of the floor workers had begun to apply for supervisorypositions. Patrick was pleased with the bonus, but when Albert saw him grinning as he walked around the building, she knewhe wasn’t thinking about his bank account.
Patrick was not happy because _____.
Select one:
a.
Patrick’s desire to be needed was not fulfilled.
b.
He had to repeat the same things in all his seminars , trainings and Business Memos.
c.
his work had become monotonous.
d.
All of these
Clear my choice
?
Question
2
Not yet answered
Marked out of 3.00
Question
3
Not yet answered
Marked out of 3.00
Which of the Following statements is Correct ?
Select one:
a.
Patrick’s salary was reduced for offering English classes on factory floor workers.
b.
Patrick immediately started working with Sales department when he joined the Organisation .
c.
Patrick’s only goal was to get a high salary package .
d.
The factory floor workers were frustrted and did not want to continue with the classes given by Patrick.
Clear my choice
Starcity had hired Patrick ______.
Select one:
a.
from an NGO , which worked for the upliftment of the workers.
b.
fresh from graduate school
c.
an another Organisation , where he was already working with Trainings .
d.
for improoving the productivity and reducing employee turnover.
Clear my choice
?
Question
4
Not yet answered
Marked out of 3.00
Question
5
Not yet answered
Marked out of 3.00
At first, the company put Patrick to work on _______.
Select one:
a.
writing
b.
revising company brochures
c.
Both A & B
d.
Direct Selling
Clear my choice
Which of the Following statements is Correct , when Patrick started to teach factory floor workers?
A. Productivity had improved
B. Employee turnover had dropped
C. Some of the floor workers had begun to apply for supervisory positions.
Select one:
a.
Only C
b.
Only A & B
c.
Only A & C
d.
All A, B , C

Module 1:Nature and Scope of Research Methodology

These are the characteristics of a good research except:

Select one:

1. Clearly defined purpose
2. Detailed research process
3. Thoroughly planned research design
4. Unclear objectives

Research is a _____________.

Select one:

1. Systematic inquiry
2. Unsystematic inquiry
3. A systematic inquiry
4. Irrelevant task

The descriptive study does not explain why an event has occurred.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. Maybe
4. mostly false

First step in research is to identify _____________.

Select one:

1. The Problem
2. Opportunity
3. Problem or Opportunity
4. Nothing

Research assists in making increasingly complex decision on:

Select one:

1. Goals
2. Strategies
3. Tactics
4. All of these

To reduce risk in managerial decision making of research, we require _____________.

Select one:

1. Process
2. Tools
3. Process and tools
4. Nothing

A study tries to discover answer related to the question who, what, when, where and sometimes how. It is known as______________ study.

Select one:

1. predictive
2. Experimental
3. Exploratory
4. Descriptive

Experimental research will include at least:

Select one:

1. one independent variable
2. One dependent variable
3. one independent variable and one dependent variable
4. two independent variable and no dependent variable

 For a management decision, we require _____________.

Select one:

1. The Problem
2. Opportunity
3. Problem or Opportunity
4. Nothing

The study that explains why an event has occurred is known as _______________ study.

Select one:

1. Explanatory
2. Descriptive
3. Explanatory and Descriptive
4. Neither Explanatory and Descriptive

A document that suggests the data necessary for solving the management question and how the data will be gathered, treated and interpreted is called __________.

Select one:

1. weekly update
2. daily report
3. contract
4. research proposal

The purpose of research proposal is to present the management question to be researched and relate its importance.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. Maybe
4. mostly false

When subject do not know if they are receiving the experiment treatment, they are said to be ___________.

Select one:

1. blind
2. control
3. measurement
4. product

Application of Research in Entrepreneurship

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. Maybe
4. mostly false

When researchers lack a clear idea of the problem they will meet during the study, then they prefer:

Select one:

1. Exploratory Study
2. Descriptive study
3. Observation
4. Historical research

The artificiality of laboratory in experimental method is a/an ___________.

Select one:

1. Advantage
2. Disadvantage
3. Bonus
4. Major benefit

Repeating an experiment with different subject groups and conditions in experimental research is a/an __________.

Select one:

1. Advantage
2. Disadvantage
3. Constraint
4. Concern

Module 2: Research Methods and Data Collection Technique

Measurement scale for age in years is ___________.

Select one:

1. Nominal scale
2. Ordinal scale
3. Interval Scale
4. Ratio Scale

Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?

Select one:

1. Quota sampling
2. Convenience sampling
3. Snowball sampling
4. Stratified random sampling

Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?

Select one:

1. The researcher chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample.
2. Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to constitute a representative sample.
3. The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the standard error.
4. It is a relatively fast and cheap way of finding out about public opinions.

The difference between a statistic and the parameter is called ___________.

Select one:

1. Non-random
2. Probability
3. Sampling error
4. Random

Sample is regarded as a subset of ___________.

Select one:

1. Data
2. Set
3. Distribution
4. Population

Snowball sampling can help the researcher to:

Select one:

1. Access deviant or hidden populations
2. Theorise inductively in a qualitative study
3. Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling frame
4. All the other three options are correct

Of the following sampling methods, which one is a probability method?

Select one:

1. Judgement
2. Quota
3. Simple random
4. Convenience

Among these, which sampling is based on equal probability?

Select one:

1. Simple random sampling
2. Stratified random sampling
3. Systematic sampling
4. Probability sampling

A simple random sample is one in which:

Select one:

1. Every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected from a random starting point.
2. A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalise.
3. The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups.
4. Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

Measurement scale for temperature in degrees is ___________.

Select one:

1. Nominal scale
2. Ordinal scale
3. Interval Scale
4. Ratio Scale

Questionnaires can address the events and characteristics taking place at which time?

Select one:

1. In the past (retrospective questions)
2. In the present (current time questions)
3. In the future (prospective questions)
4. in past, present and future

When constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of the following except:

Select one:

1. Use "leading" or "loaded" questions
2. Use natural language
3. Understand your research participants
4. Pilot your test questionnaire

Questionnaire is a:

Select one:

1. Research method
2. Measurement technique
3. Tool for data collection
4. Data analysis technique

For determination of equality, we use _____________.

Select one:

1. Nominal scale
2. Ordinal scale
3. Interval Scale
4. Ratio Scale

Sampling and Non-sampling Errors

In case of quantitative research, samples are selected mostly by using:

Select one:

1. Probability techniques
2. Non-probability techniques
3. either Probability or non-probability
4. both probability and non-probability

A census taker often collects data through which of the following?

Select one:

1. Standardised test
2. Interview
3. Secondary data
4. Observations

Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?

Select one:

1. Questionnaires
2. Focus groups
3. Correlational method
4. Secondary data

Module 3: Data Analyses Techniques

Function of hypothesis is to guide the direction of the study.

Select one:

1. Never
2. Always
3. Sometimes
4. Occasionally

Null hypothesis relates to _______________.

Select one:

1. Sample Statistic
2. Population Parameter
3. Sampling Distribution
4. Independent Variable

Degree of freedom for a ANOVA table is _______________.

Select one:

1. n-1
2. c-1
3. r-1
4. n+1

The alternative hypothesis is the logical opposite of the null hypothesis.

Select one:

1. Never
2. sometimes
3. Always
4. occasionally

25 % level of significance means there are 75 out of 100 chances of committing type I error

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. May be
4. sometimes true

Accept the hypothesis if the sample mean is in:

Select one:

1. Acceptance zone
2. Rejection region
3. Reject by any means
4. None of these

Reject the hypothesis if the sample mean is in:

Select one:

1. Acceptance zone
2. Rejection region
3. Reject by any means
4. None of these

25% level of significance means there are 25 out of 100 chances of committing type I error.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. May be
4. sometimes true

Function of hypothesis is to identify facts that are relevant and those that are not.

Select one:

1. Never
2. Always
3. Sometimes
4. Occasionally

A strong hypothesis should be testable empirically.

Select one:

1. Always
2. Never
3. Sometimes
4. Occasionally

Significance level is indicated by _________.

Select one:

1. alpha
2. beta
3. alpha + beta
4. alpha - beta

Null Hypothesis relates to:

Select one:

1. Sample statistic
2. Population Parameter
3. Sampling Distribution
4. independent Variable

Null Hypothesis is a statement that no difference exists between the parameter and statistic being compared.

Select one:

1. Never
2. Always
3. sometimes
4. occasionally

The alternative hypothesis is the logical opposite of the null hypothesis.

Select one:

1. Never
2. sometimes
3. Always
4. occasionally

F value is the ratio of:

Select one:

1. Mean square between and Mean square within
2. Mean square within and Mean square between
3. sum of square and degree of freedom
4. sum of square within and degree of freedom

95% level of significance means there are 95 of 100 chances of acceptance and 5 % chances of error.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. May be
4. sometimes true

All of these are assumptions of ANOVA except:

Select one:

1. Normality of population
2. Homogeneity
3. Randomness
4. Population size should be very small

Module 4: Associative and Predictive Techniques

Value of correlation greater than 1 is known as negative correlation.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes true
4. can't say

Value of "r "equal to zero indicates positive correlation.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes False
4. can't say

Value of "r "equal to zero indicates no correlation.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes False
4. can't say

Correlation helps us in understanding the relationship between two or more variables.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes False
4. can't say

If the value of one variable decreases with decrease in another variable, we call it negative correlation.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes False
4. can't say

Regression coefficient is independent of ___________.

Select one:

1. Origin
2. Scale
3. Both origin and scale
4. Neither origin nor scale

If the value of one variable does not change with decrease in another variable, we call it no correlation.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes False
4. can't say

Value of "r " equal to zero indicates negative correlation.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes False
4. can't say

If the same rank appears, it is impossible to calculate rank correlation.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes true
4. can't say

If the value of one variable increases with increase in other variable, we call it negative correlation.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes true
4. can't say

The coefficient of determination for 16 is strong.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. sometimes true
4. can't say

In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the explanatory variable (x) is:

Select one:

1. the correlation model
2. the regression model
3. used to compute the correlation coefficient
4. None of these

The intercept in linear regression represents:

Select one:

1. the strength of the relationship between x and y
2. the expected x value when y is zero
3. the expected y value when x is zero
4. a population parameter

If two variables oppose each other, then the correlation will be _______________.

Select one:

1. Positive Correlation
2. Zero Correlation
3. Perfect Correlation
4. Negative Correlation

The value of the coefficient of correlation is:

Select one:

1. less than 1
2. greater than 1
3. between 0 to 1
4. between -1 to 1

The method of least squares finds the best fit line that _______ the error between observed and estimated points on the line.

Select one:

1. Maximizes
2. Minimizes
3. Reduces to zero
4. Approaches to infinity

In correlation, both variables are always ___________.

Select one:

1. random
2. non-Random
3. same
4. never random

Module 5: Field Project and Report Writing

The research methodology section of the report should include a specific discussion of the analysis process.

Select one:

1. True
2. False
3. Sometime false
4. Occasionally true

The basic purpose of the research and the specific objectives agreed upon in the research proposal should be included in

which section of the research report?

Select one:

1. title page
2. introduction
3. methodology
4. appendix

Some general advice for preparing the written report includes all of these except:

Select one:

1. Make sure the report represents you and your work.
2. Do not organize the report by the stages of the research.
3. Do not write for your audience.
4. Do not discuss exploratory reports using statistics.

The abstract is the place where you explain your central theory.

Select one:

1. True
2. False
3. Sometime false
4. Occasionally true

It is a good practice for the writer of the research report to assume that the reader has prior knowledge of the research problem.

Select one:

1. True
2. False
3. Sometime false
4. Occasionally true

The basic purchase of the research report is to communicate the results, conclusions, and recommendations of the research project.

Select one:

1. True
2. False
3. Sometime false
4. Occasionally true

The researcher’s role is not only to just present the facts, but also to draw conclusions on the basis of the findings and to make recommendation on the basis of the conclusions.

Select one:

1. True
2. False
3. Sometime false
4. Occasionally true

The research methodology section of the research report should include a brief description of:

Select one:

1. The primary means of data collection
2. The type of instrument used to collect the information
3. A specific discussion of the analysis process
4. The primary means of data collection and a specific discussion of the analysis process

The findings section of the report is normally the largest section of the report and should be organized in a logical way.

Select one:

1. True
2. False
3. Sometime false
4. Occasionally true

You should always include terms such as 'we' and 'our' in reports to sound more friendly.

Select one:

1. True
2. False
3. Sometime false
4. Occasionally true

Which ONE of these is best avoided in a report?

Select one:

1. Idiomatic phrases
2. Political correctness
3. Conclusions
4. Transcribed fragments

The user of research information must be aware of the ways in which visual displays can be misleading. Which ONE of these is most likely to help the user?

Select one:

1. Including sample sizes
2. Removing data
3. Concealing data
4. Changing scales

Which ONE of these phrases is best avoided in a report?

Select one:

1. Normal respondent
2. Frequently occurring
3. Typical behaviour
4. Average consumption

Which of these situations cannot be discovered to help preparation before a presentation?

Select one:

1. Room size
2. Reason for meeting
3. The mood of the meeting
4. Audience size

The report writer should always remember that people have expectations about what information they will find and where it will be. It is unusual for final reports to have a section with ____________.

Select one:

1. executive summary
2. method
3. appendices
4. research costs

Which section of a report is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of the research question?

Select one:

1. Method
2. Results
3. Appendices
4. Objectives

Which of these is a bad practice for a report?

Select one:

1. To state fieldwork dates and sample sizes
2. To have a contents page or another form of indexing
3. To include names of all respondents with contact details
4. To use a title that is short and to the point

Assignment 2

Case study:

The ability to come up with a business idea can be transformed into a viable business where ideas supported by feasibility and a business plan can be sold to interested investors firms, and interested parties for a lump sum or a management contractor, are as agreed business ideas, if introduce at the right time, when demand for search service are a product introduced by the ideas is expected to surge, can lead to a very profitable business. Business ideas are always available through different sources; however, it is the application applied on this ideas, and timing makes all the difference in failure or successes. After discussing some good business ideas, Babe and Hari have decided that their best option is to open a small cafe. They believe that their background and experience in the hospitality industry will help them to succeed. Hari is keen to start up the business straight away and has already found what he thinks is a good location. However, Babu is not sure and want to spend more time researching the market before they commit to anything. Babu can see the benefit in being fully prepared before investing time and money into starting the business.

Question: Before implementing a business plan it is a good idea to develop a business proposal and conduct the research to check the market potential.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. Maybe
4. Mostly false

?

Through which data collection technique did Hari find out which was the good location?

Select one:

1. Primary source
2. Secondary source
3. Primary and secondary
4. Neither primary nor secondary source

The information related to what, where and when to execute the business plan is consided as _______________.

Select one:

1. Descriptive study
2. Exploratory study
3. Explanatory study
4. Experimental study

Hari's considering 1% level of significance means there are 1 out of 100 chances of committing type I error.

Select one:

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. May be
4. Sometimes true

The report prepared is NOT:

Select one:

1. Tangible evidence of a research project.
2. A research proposal.
3. Future secondary data.
4. A basis for decision making.