Business Communication

Assignment A

1. Explain the process of communication?

 

2. Why is recognizing common barriers to effective communication important? Identify one common barrier from each of the following three barrier zones
3. As you prepare a business presentation for your company’s executive management committee, how will you know whether you need visual aids? What kinds of visual aids can be used?    
4. How important is body language while appearing for an interview? Elaborate giving suitable examples.
5. Write short note on any three of the following.  A)      Abbreviations (Give examples) b)      Synonyms & Antonyms (Give examples), c)      Non Verbal communication (Give examples), d)     Interview as a mode of non verbal communication, e)      Types of business letters
6. Draft a circular for the office staff mentioning the changes in timings of the office
7. Design the promotional material for a management event. It should include brochures, invites and programs
8. You are the office manager for Smart System, Inc, a startup IT firm in Udyog Vihar Gurgaon. Recently you bought 10 modems from Precision Supplies, a computer hardware supplier located in New Delhi (L2 Block Connaught Palace New Delhi). After two weeks of installation of modems, you found that two of the modems are not functioning properly. Since you have paid the full amount against the purchase of modems you are entitled to enjoy two years of warrantee including free replacement for any product within one month.

9.         You called their customer service department to ask for replacement last Friday that replacement would be delivered on following Monday. It is now Friday and you haven’t heard anything from the supplier company. You need the two modems immediately as your company is working on a major project and dead line is approaching fast. This is the first time you have ordered from Precision Suppliers and may be last

   Write a letter of complaint to demand for immediate replacement or full refund.

 

 

Assignment B

Case Detail:  

1. Read the case study given below and answer the questions given at the end

 Case Study

                                          Charisma Corporation

Charisma Corporation (CC) has recently embarked on a new kind of training. The corporation is teaching many of its employees, especially those in the marketing and sales to make decisions on the basis of non verbal communication cues. For Malini Varma, VP of CC, focusing on non verbal communications has become an important part of her inter personal dealings. Several years ago, Varma became interested in how body movements and mannerism truly reflect what an individual is saying. Continuously reading in this area of study, Varma has been able to take decisions about potential employees and potential customers by ‘reading’ them. Varma believes that body language can give a person competitive advantage. It can make difference while closing a deal or, as in CC’s case, while hiring employees. For example, during interviews, Malini pays constant attention to the candidate’s eye movements and mannerism. She believes that she can correctly predict if the candidate will be aggressive sales person while simultaneously being personable and friendly. How does she do it? She does this by looking at their eyes and the way they present themselves. In one case hiring decision came down to two people. The first person was animated and made constant eye contact. The second candidate never looked in the eyes of Malini. , leaned back in his/her chair, and crossed both his legs and arms. The first candidate demonstrated the communication skills that Varma thought aligned with successful performance in her organization.

                Malini Varma is convinced that communication skills play a significant role in helping her organization achieve its annual sales goals. Personally, she has found that it has helped her ‘quality’ customers. For instance even when a potential customer says,’ yes’ with his/her arms and legs crossed emphatically, it means, No! Understanding this, Varma is in a better position to probe further into the possible objections the customer has. She has found that, in many cases, she is able to steer the conversation in a direction that ultimately leads to successfully closing a sale. And that is a major competitive advantage.

 

1. What problems Varma encounter by her heavy reliance on non verbal communication
2. What communication guidance would you give to Varma and individuals like her who place an inordinately high value on body language? Explain your position. What communication guidance would you give to Varma and individuals like her who place an inordinately high value on body language? Explain your position.

 

QUESTION 1

 

_____ is a powerful mode of non verbal communication.

                       

Written skills

                       

Proximics

                       

Reading clearly

                       

Listening

 

QUESTION 2

 

To decode a message is to ___

                       

interpret te message

                       

translate the message

                       

evaluate the message

                       

reject the message

 

QUESTION 3

 

_____ will come from the receiver of the message.

                       

Kinesics

                       

Feedback

                       

coding

                       

verbal

 

QUESTION 4

 

___ distorts or interfers the message.

                       

Colour

                       

Noise

                       

Communication Thoughts

                       

Incorrect

 

QUESTION 5

 

An example of a communication channel is ___

                       

noise

                       

context

                       

feedback

                       

face to face

 

QUESTION 6

 

"In ____ communication , ethics is important."

                       

interpersonal

                       

intrapersonal

                       

introvert

                       

extrovert

 

QUESTION 7

 

___ is an example of non verbal language.

                       

Jargon

                       

Eye contact

                       

shouting

                       

running

 

QUESTION 8

 

___is not an example of non verbal language.

                       

Paralanguage

                       

proximics

                       

Colour language

                       

Listening

 

QUESTION 9

 

A ___ can only be deemed effective when it is understood by others.

                       

Listening

                       

Message

                       

Letters

                       

Articles

 

QUESTION 10

 

___ is important because it guarantees that one's message will be decoded.

                       

Writing

                       

Reading

                       

Encoding

                       

Noise

 

QUESTION 11

 

When did they ___ at the hotel?

                       

arrive at

                       

arrive to

                       

arrive in

                       

get to

 

QUESTION 12

 

"____cricket, I enjoy watching football and basketball."

                       

Apart from

                       

Except

                       

Besides

                       

Except for

 

QUESTION 13

 

We must ___ you that your payment is due.

                       

inform

                       

communicate

                       

memo

                       

agenda

 

QUESTION 14

 

Could you let me ___ my sentence?

                       

finish

                       

create

                       

communicate

                       

listen to

 

QUESTION 15

 

The word ____ is derived from the Latin word Communis

                       

institute

                       

communication

                       

listen

                       

none of the above

 

QUESTION 16

 

In business we ___ to persuade and inform.

                       

communicate

                       

listen

                       

talk

                       

meet

 

QUESTION 17

 

Communication is effectively a ____ way process.

                       

one

                       

two

                       

three

                       

four

 

QUESTION 18

 

___ that affect the content of a message are in the minds of both the speaker and the listener.

                       

Pictures

                       

Images

                       

Filters

                       

Thoughts

 

QUESTION 19

 

___ is not one of the 7 C's of Communication.

                       

Clarity

                       

Character

                       

Conciseness

                       

Correctness

 

QUESTION 20

 

Human communication is essentially ___

                       

short_lived

                       

emotional

                       

imperfect

                       

perfect

 

QUESTION 21

 

Everyday I get up and go ___ bathroom.

                       

in

                       

to

                       

at

                       

for

 

QUESTION 22

 

"After Attending classes, I went ___ my hotel room at 5 pm."

                       

to

                       

in

                       

at

                       

as

 

QUESTION 23

 

The idiom A hard nut to crack means __

                       

easy problem

                       

difficult problem

                       

no problem

                       

laughter

 

QUESTION 24

 

"The idiom a bad egg means, a ___ person."

                       

worthless

                       

passive

                       

active

                       

dangerous

 

QUESTION 25

 

"The idiom, as the crow flies means, in a ___ line."

                       

curved

                       

long

                       

straight

                       

irregular

 

QUESTION 26

 

____ is not a synonym of dull.

                       

gloomy

                       

cheerless

                       

cheerful

                       

melancholy

 

QUESTION 27

 

___ is a synonym of happy.

                       

cheerful

                       

cheerless

                       

lonesome

                       

sad

 

QUESTION 28

 

_____is a exchange of thoughts and ideas.

                       

Reading

                       

speaking

                       

Talking

                       

Communication

 

QUESTION 29

 

In an organization people are linked together because of ___

                       

gossip

                       

communication

                       

friendship

                       

documents

 

QUESTION 30

 

A group of words that makes complete sense is called a ___

                       

clause

                       

sentence

                       

phrase

                       

document

 

QUESTION 31

 

The English ___ won the world cup?

                       

is

                       

has

                       

have

                       

are

 

QUESTION 32

 

Rita made up her mind to speak to me. The meaning of the phrase made up in the given sentence means ___.

                       

mixed

                       

decided

                       

thought

                       

contemplate

 

QUESTION 33

 

"During a presentation, in the ___ we tell the audience the aim ot the presentation."

                       

conclusion

                       

background

                       

introduction

                       

preparation

 

QUESTION 34

 

Speaking to a group of people in an official gathering is called a ___

                       

circular

                       

presentation

                       

notice

                       

meeting

 

QUESTION 35

 

OHP means ___

                       

On hand projector

                       

On head projection

                       

Over head projector

                       

over hand projector

 

QUESTION 36

 

"In a presentation, listeners can clarify their ___ in audience questions session."

                       

listening

                       

information

                       

doubts

                       

messages

 

QUESTION 37

 

___ listening is also called critical listening.

                       

Evalutive

                       

Empathetic

                       

Discriminative

                       

Therapeutic

 

QUESTION 38

 

All the students ___ to watch that movie.

                       

want

                       

wants

                       

like

                       

likes

 

QUESTION 39

 

What does your mother ___?

                       

did

                       

do

                       

don't

                       

does

 

QUESTION 40

 

Listening is an ___ process.

                       

active

                       

inactive

                       

passive

                       

attention

 

Assignment - A

1. Discuss the nature and dynamism of business environment. What factors trigger changes in the business environment?

 

 

2. Elaborate upon the major components of internal environment of a business firm?

 

3. Explain the main objectives as incorporated in various five-year plans of India.

 

 

4. ‘Social responsibility is a luxury which a few business organizations can afford’. Do you agree or disagree? Give arguments in support of your answer.

5. Write short answers to any three of the following: -
6. Factors effecting technological environment of business

 

 

2. Economic Liberalization

 

3. Horizontal and vertical integration

 

7. Special Economic Zones (SEZs)

 

8. Explain the regulatory role of the government in an economy. Is government intervention in the economy desirable?

8. Explain the role and functions of WTO and discuss its importance in promoting international trade.

 

Business Environment

 

Case Study -

Dumping is the process exporting goods at a price lower than what a good company can fetch in its domestic market. For eg. A baker sells a loaf of bread for Rs.100, but because there are no buyers in India she exports the loaf of bread to another country for Rs. 90.This will be called as dumping by that country. The retail price includes the profit margin of the seller. The loaf in the previous example may have been produced for Rs. 80 with the profit marging being Rs. 20 a loaf. This baker cuts down on his profits when he exports the loaf for Rs. 90. Exporters dump products when they cannot sell products in their domestic market even after slashing costs. This happens when domestic demand is very low as is the case with China, which is flooding the world with its cheap steel.

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                   The prices are already down. One of the reasons is that China accounts for half of the world's steel capacity of 1600 million tonnes (MT) per year and a slowdown has meant that even low -priced is not being bought domestically. In order to reduce excess capacity China recently announced a 1.8 million job cut in the coal and steel sector.    

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                         Yes, China exported 112MT of steel in 2015. This is 25% more than India's total production of steel. Most of the countries to which China exports its steel say that the country is dumping the product causing adverse impact on their domestic industry. Tata Steel, which has begun the process of selling its UK operations, said one of its businesses in Europe was affected due to cheap Chinese imports flooding the continent.

 

Q.1. What is dumping process.

 2. Why did China recently announced a 1.8 million job cut in the coal and steel sector.?

 

Q.3. When does exporter's dump their products.

 

A

 

SECTION C

 

QUESTION 1

 

MFN stands for

                       

1. Most favoured Nation

 

2. Most fugitive nation

 

3. None of the above

 

4. All of the above

 

QUESTION 2

 

A period of rising prices and unemployement but little growth in consumer demand and business activity is known as

                       

1. Stagflation

 

2. Inflation

 

3. Competition

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 3

 

An increase in supply of currency or credit relative to the availability of goods and services resulting in higher prices

                       

1. Competition

 

2. Stagflation

 

3. Inflation

 

4. All of the above

 

QUESTION 4

 

Economic Factors impacting business includes

                       

1. "Tarriffs, Quotas etc"

 

2. Political risks

 

3. Acts of God

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 5

 

Geological and ecological factors include

                       

1. General Agreement on Tarrifs and Trades

 

2. Topograhical factors

 

3. Inflation of white Goods

 

4. Both (a) and (b)

 

QUESTION 6

 

"Use of economic theory , mathematical and statastical tools to forecast economic relations"

                       

1. Economic Luck

 

2. Economic Efficiency

 

3. Econometric Methods

 

4. Decision Science

 

QUESTION 7

 

Which of the following are Brown Goods

                       

1. "Refrigerator, Washing Machines"

 

2. "Radio , Transistors, televisons"

 

3. Both (a) and (b)

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 8

 

Markets with small number of large firms producing the bulk of its output

                       

1. Monopoly

 

2. Oligopoly

 

3. Both (a) and (b)

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 9

 

MRTP act was replaced by this act

                       

1. The consumer Protection Act

 

2. SEBI Act

 

3. Sick Industrial Companies Act

 

4. The Competition Act

 

QUESTION 10

 

"Act which authorizes the Government to protect and improve environmental quality, control and reduce pollution”

                       

1. "Environmental Protection Act,1986"

 

2. MRTP Act

 

3. The consumer Protection Act

 

4. SEBI Act

 

QUESTION 11

 

The rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks

                       

1. Repo rate

 

2. Reverse Repo rate

 

3. Cash reserve ratio

 

4. Bank Rate

 

QUESTION 12

 

Rate at which RBI borrows money from banks

                       

1. Repo rate

 

2. Reverse Repo rate

 

3. Cash reserve ratio

 

4. Bank Rate

 

QUESTION 13

 

Industrial Policy is about

                       

1. Controlling prics

 

2. Controlling Quantity

 

3. Both (a) and (b)

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 14

 

Market which has only one seller of a particular good or service

                       

1. Monopoly

 

2. Oligopoly

 

3. Both (a) and (b)

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 15

 

FEMA stands for

                       

1. Foreign Exchange Multinational Act

 

2. Foreign Exchange Managrial Ability

 

3. Foreign Exchange Management act

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 16

 

The act which regulates relations between workers and employers for direct negotiations is known as

                       

1. "The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947"

 

2. International Labour Organization

 

3. None of the above

 

4. All of the above

 

QUESTION 17

 

Socio-Cultural Environment includes

                       

1. Life-Style Changes

 

2. Devaluation

 

3. Consumer Activism

 

4. Both (a) and (b)

 

QUESTION 18

 

FERA Stands for

                       

1. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act

 

2. Foreign Exchange Registration Act

 

3. Funding Exchange Regulation Act

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 19

 

RBI can restrict the following

                       

1. Transfer of foreign security by Indian Resident and NRI

 

2. Transfer of Immovable property

 

3. Both (a) and (b)

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 20

 

Business on internet is known as

                       

1. FMCG

 

2. Black Market

 

3. E-Biz School

 

4. E-Commerce

 

QUESTION 21

 

"Those who are willing to take risk in starting new business, pursuing opportunities and being innovative are known as"

                       

1. Brain Drain

 

2. Budget Line

 

3. Entrepreneurs

 

4. Decision Science

 

QUESTION 22

 

Attaching a brand mark or brand name to a product in order to distinguish it from other product variants

                       

1. Capitalism

 

2. Consumer Sovereignty

 

3. Common Economy

 

4. Branding

 

QUESTION 23

 

Imperfect Competition can be divided into three main categories

                       

1. Monopoly and Monopsony

 

2. Oligopoly and Oligopsony

 

3. Monopolistic Competition

 

4. All of the above

 

QUESTION 24

 

The objectives of Fiscal Policy are

                       

1. Development of country

 

2. Provide Employment

 

3. None of the above

 

4. Both (a) and (b)

 

QUESTION 25

 

Goal of NAFTA is to

                       

1. Eliminate barriers to trade and investment between three countries

 

2. Eliminate barriers to trade and investment between all the countries of the world

 

3. Eliminate barriers to trade and investment between tribes

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 26

 

A systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of reporting country and residents of foreign countries is known as

                       

1. Balance of Trade

 

2. Balance of Payments

 

3. Both (a) and (b)

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 27

 

SAARC Agreement establishes a framework for

                       

1. The exchange of trade concessions among the member states

 

2. Eliminate barriers to trade and investment between three countries

 

3. Accelerate Economic Growth

 

4. All of the above

 

QUESTION 28

 

TRIMs stands for

                       

1. Trade Related Investment Measures

 

2. Trade Related Improvement Measures

 

3. Trade Related Initiation Measures

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 29

 

The term refers to a corporation's initiatives to assess and take responsibility for the company's effects on environmental and social wellbeing

                       

1. Business Cycle

 

2. Trend analysis

 

3. Corporate Social Responsibility

 

4. Expropriation Risk

 

QUESTION 30

 

The most useful information derived from a break-even chart is the

                       

1. Amount of sales revenue needed to cover enterprise fixed costs

 

2. Amount of sales revenue needed to cover enterprise variable costs

 

3. Volume or output level at which the enterprise break-evens

 

4. Relationship between revenue and costs at various levels of an activity

 

QUESTION 31

 

Competition Act was passed in the year

                       

1. 1947

 

2. 1956

 

3. 2002

 

4. None of the above

 

QUESTION 32

 

The objective of cash discount is

                       

1. to extend the goodwill of a firm

 

2. to reduce the price of a product

 

3. to encourage the customers to make prompt payment

 

4. to increase the number of customers

 

QUESTION 33

 

Opportunity cost is a term which describes

                       

1. a bargain price for a factor of production

 

2. costs related to an optimum level of production

 

3. variable costs

 

4. cost of one product in terms of production of others forgone

 

QUESTION 34

 

Income which individuals have at their disposal after the payment of personal Tax is known as

                       

1. Gross National Product

 

2. Net National Product

 

3. Disposable Income

 

4. Personal Income

 

QUESTION 35

 

GSTP establishes a framework for

                       

1. Trade Related Investment Measures

 

2. Exchange of trade concessions among the members of the group

 

3. Accelerate Economic Growth

 

4. Incorrect

 

QUESTION 36

 

The objective of India Trade Promotion Organization is to

                       

1. Promote exports and imports

 

2. Upgradation of technology through the medium of fairs held in India and abroad

 

3. Assist Indian companies in product development

 

4. All of the above

 

QUESTION 37

 

National Centre for Trade promotion was established to

                       

1. "Provide the latest trade, business and economic information to helpIndian and foreign organizations"

 

2. Exchange of trade concessions among the members of the group

 

3. Bargain price for a factor of production

 

4. Issue Policies to the exporters

 

QUESTION 38

 

The main factors of micro-environment are

                       

1. Suppliers

 

2. Customers

 

3. Marketing Intermediaries

 

4. All of the above

 

QUESTION 39

 

Number of units of the product which must be soldnto earn enough revenue to cover all the expenses-both fixed and variable is known as

                       

1. Forecasting

 

2. Break-Even Point

 

3. Fixed Costs

 

4. Contribution Margin

 

QUESTION 40

 

The objectives of Information Technology Act are

                       

1. To legalise digital signature

 

2. Store data electronicallly

 

3. To stop computer crime

 

4. All of the above

 

Computers In Management

 

Q1. What is the role of a information system in Business?

Q2. What are the advantages of DBMS?

Q. 4. Difference's between RAM and ROM?

 

SECTION B

Case Study -

 

It is important for all businesses to establish trusting relationships with their consumers. Companieswith established reputations in the physical world often create trust by ensuring that consumers knowwho they are. These businesses can rely on their established brand names to create trust on the web.New companies that want to establish online businesses face a more difficult challenge because a kindof anonymity exists for companies trying to establish a web presence.Most companies now realize that the only way to do business effectively in other cultures is to adapt tothose cultures. The phrase “think globally, act locally” is often used to describe this approach. The firststep that a web business usually takes to reach potential consumers in other countries, and thus in othercultures, is azto provide local language versions of its website. This may mean translating the websiteinto another language or regional dialect. Researchers have found that consumers are far more likely tobuy products and services from websites in their own language, even if they can read English well.Only 370 million of the world’s 6 billion people learned English as their native language.An important element of business trust is anticipating how the other party to a transaction will act inspecific circumstances. That is one reason why companies with established brands can build onlinebusinesses more quickly and easily than a new company without a reputation. The brand conveys someexpectations about how the company will behave. For example, a potential buyer might like to knowhow the seller would react to a claim by the buyer that the seller misrepresented the quality of thegoods sold. Part of this knowledge derives from the buyer and seller sharing a common language andcommon customs. Business partners ideally have a common legal structure for resolving disputes. Thecombination of language and customs is often called culture. Most researchers agree that culture variesacross national boundaries and, in many cases, varies across regions within nations. All companiesmust be aware of the differences in language and customs that make up the culture of any region inwhich they intend to do business.

1. Explain important parameters for  a business.

2. Whats the problem with internal business?

3. How to overcome the language barrier in international business?

 

1- Which of the following ISO level is more closely related to the physical
communications facilities?
Data Link
network
Session
Application

 

Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial
communication link?
All of above
Simplex
Half-duplex
Full duplex

 

WAN stands for
Wireless Area Network
Wide Area Network
Wide Area Network
Wap Area Network

 

Which of the following is a network topology
MAN

BUS
LAN
WAN

 

What is the other name for LAN card?
Network Interface Card
Modem
Network Connector
Internet Card

 

What is the address given to a computer connected 'to a network called?
SYSID
System Address
IP Address
Process ID

 

What is the signal that travels around the token-ring and carries data called?
frame
token
cell
Packet

 

Coaxial cables are widely used on
none of these above
cable TV networks
broadband networks
telephone networks

 

The topology with highest reliability is ?
Mesh Topology
Star topology
Bus topology
Ring Topology

 

Which of the following is a disadvantage for networks with bus topology?`
Cable faults down entire network
Less cabling than ring
Cheaper connectors
Needs a central device

 

The slowest transmission speeds are those of
twisted-pair wire
microwaves
coaxial cable
fiber-optic cable

 

Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation?
multiplexer
protocols
gateway
modem

 

Star Topology is Based On a Central Device that can be __________ ?
Both 1 and 2
Only HUB
Switch
HUB

 

 

The term e-commerce includes ............................

"All the steps involved in trade, such as on-line marketing ordering payment
and support for delivery."
Electronic trading of Physical goods and intangibles such as information.
All of the above
The electronic provision of services such as after sales support or online legal
advice

 

How the transactions occur in e?commerce?
Using computers only
Using e?medias
Using mobile phones only
None of the above

 

Which is not a feature of ecommerce
WWW
SCM
BPR
EDI

 

E-business is:
the use of electronic communications for all business processes.
an organization using electronic media to sell direct to its customers.
an organization using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers.
any electronically mediated communication between an organization and its
stakeholders.

 

Amazon.com is well?known for which e?commerce marketing technique?
Viral marketing
Banner ads
Affiliate programs
Pop?up ads

 

Electronic Data Interchange is necessary in
B2C e-Commerce
B2B e-Commerce
C2C e-Commerce
Commerce using internet

 

OTP stands for .
On Time Password
On Time processing
One time processor
None

 

EDI standards are
not required for B2B commerce
essential for B2B commerce
not universally available
still being evolved

 

Which is not a feature of ecommerce
SCM
EDI
WWW
BPR

 

In Electronic cash payment
a debit card payment system is used
RSA cryptography is used in the transactions
a credit card payment system is used
a customer buys several electronic coins which are digitally signed by coin
issuing bank

 

EDI requires .
data entry operators by receivers
special hardware at co-operating Business premises
special value added networks
representation of common business documents in computer readable form

 

What is an electronic representation of cash?
E?cash
All of the above
Digital cash
Electronic cash

 

B2C commerce ..
means only shopping for physical goods
includes services such as legal advice
means only customers should approach business to buy
means only customers should approach customers to sell

 

The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called
Data record
Data bank
Data file
Data base

 

DBMS is a collection of .. that enables user to create and maintain a
database.
Language Activity
Program
Translators
Keys

 

An advantage of the database management approach is
data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs
none of the above
data redundancy increases
data is dependent on programs

 

What is internet?
none of the mentioned
interconnection of local area networks
a single network
a vast collection of different networks
Question

 

"The computer jargon - WWWW, stands for : "
World Wide Web Worm
World Wide Women's Web
World Wide Women's Week
World Wide Wildlife Web

 

Q5.The internet is an example of
Cell switched network
Packet swiched network
Circuit switched network
All of above

 

A multimedia file
none of the mentioned
stored on remote server can not be delivered to its client
must be accessed at specific rate
is same as any other regular file

 

The basic architecture of computer was developed by
Garden Moore
Blaise Pascal
Charles Babbage
John Von Neumann

 

In how many generations a computer can be classified?
3
4
5
6

 

ALU is
Array Logic Unit
None of above
Arithmetic Logic Unit
Application Logic Unit

 

The information of MIS comes from the
External source
Both internal and external source
None of the above
Internal source

 

The flow of information through MIS is
information dependent
need dependent
organization dependent
management dependent

 

_______ details are given by Management to Marketing Service System.
Customer
Employee
None of the above
Supplier

 

In a broad sense, a railway track is an example of
simplex
Full duplex
all of the above
Half duplex

Organisational Behavior

 

SECTION A

Q.1. What are the causes of organizational conflict? How could they get over come, state suitable examples.

 

Q.2. Discuss transactional analysis and also elaborate the JOHARI WINDOW

Q.3. List the traits of personality. Define various types of personality.

Q.4. How learning leaves its impact on the mind of people?  What is the role of learning on organization behavior?

 

Q.5. What is OB? Discuss importance and scope of organisation behaviour.

 

SECTION B

 

CASE STUDY:

Rohit is the Associate Director of a non-profit agency that provides assistance to children and families. he is the head of a department that focuses on evaluating the skill-building programs the agency provides to families. he reports directly to the agency leadership. As a whole, the agency has been cautious in hiring this year because of increased competition for federal grant funding. However, they have also suffered high staff turnover. Two directors have left, as well as three key research staff, and one staff person from the finance department.

Rohit has a demanding schedule that requires frequent travel; however he supervises two managers, who in turn are responsible for five staff members each. Both managers have been appointed within the last six months. 

Manager 1: Mohan has a specific background in research. he manages staff who provide research support to another department that delivers behavioral health services to youth. Mohan supports his staff and is very organized; however, he often takes a very black and white view of issues. Upper level leadership values Mohan’s latest research on the therapeutic division’s services. Mohan is very motivated, driven, and expects the same from his staff.

Manager 2: Rajat has a strong background in social science research and evaluation. he manages staff that work on different projects within the agency. he is known as problem solver and is extremely supportive of his staff. he is very organized and has a wealth of experience in evaluation of family services. he is very capable and can sometimes take on too much.

The managers are sensing that staff are becoming over-worked as everyone takes on increased responsibilities due to high staff turnover. Staff have also mentioned that Rohit’s “glass half-empty” conversation style leaves them feeling dejected. In addition, rohit has not shared budgets with his managers, so they are having difficulty appropriately allocating work to staff. mohan said he has not received sufficient information from the finance department to complete the budgets. The finance department said they have sent him all the information they have available.

As staff become distressed, the managers are becoming frustrated. They feel like they are unable to advocate for their staff or problem solve without key information like the departmental budget

 

 

1. What kind of problem the department is facing?
2. What is the solution of problem in your point of view?
3. What step must be taken to build up staff confidence?

 

SECTION C

 

QUESTION 1

 

Organization Behaviour is not a /an

                       

1. A separate field of study

 

1. Applied science

 

1. Normative science

 

1. Pessimistic approach

 

QUESTION 2

 

Most valuable asset in an organization is

                       

1. Land and building

 

1. Cash and bank balances

 

1. Human being

 

1. technology

 

QUESTION 3

 

A study of human behaviour in organizational settings is

                       

1. Individual behaviour

 

1. Group behaviour

 

1. Organizational behaviour

 

1. None of these

 

QUESTION 4

 

Which of the following is a method of measuring attitude?

                       

1. Opinion survey

 

1. Interview

 

1. Scaling techniques

 

1. All the above

 

QUESTION 5

 

Sathish has a low absenteeism rate. He takes responsibility for his health and has good health habits. He is likely to have a(an):

                       

1. Internal locus of control

 

1. External locus of control

 

1. Core locus of control

 

1. High emotional stability level

 

QUESTION 6

 

Cognitive theory of learning was given by

                       

1. Skinner

 

1. Pavlov

 

1. Tolman

 

1. Piajet

 

QUESTION 7

 

What role did the meat play in Pavlov s experiment with dogs?

                       

1. an unconditioned response

 

1. a conditioned stimulus

 

1. a conditioned response

 

1. an unconditioned stimulus

 

QUESTION 8

 

Most of the learning that takes place in the Class room is

                       

1. Classical conditioning

 

1. Operant conditioning

 

1. Cognitive learning

 

1. Social learning

 

QUESTION 9

 

...is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of experience

                       

1. Behaviour modification

 

1. Learning

 

1. Motivation

 

1. Skills

 

QUESTION 10

 

Experiments performed by Ivan Pavlov led to what theory?

                       

1. classical conditioning

 

1. operant conditioning

 

1. social learning

 

1. behavior shaping

 

QUESTION 11

 

Which of the following is not a biographical characteristic?

                       

1. political affiliation

 

1. age

 

1. Sex

 

1. tenure

 

QUESTION 12

 

Factors other than satisfaction that impact one s decision to leave a current job include all of the following EXCEPT:

                       

1. Labour market conditions

 

1. Length of tenure with the organization

 

1. Organizational citizenship behaviour

 

1. Expectations about alternative job opportunities

 

QUESTION 13

 

Which of the following is a reason that the study of organizational behaviour is useful?

                       

1. Human behavior does not vary a great deal between individuals and situations.

 

1. Human behavior is not random.

 

1. Human behavior is not consistent.

 

1. Human behavior is rarely predictable

 

QUESTION 14

 

is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of experience

                       

1. Behaviour modification

 

1. Learning

 

1. Motivation

 

1. Skills

 

QUESTION 15

 

Which of the following is/are OD intervention techniques               

1. Sensitivity training

 

1. MBO

 

1. Quality of work life

 

1. All the above

 

QUESTION 16

 

Today s organization are

                       

1. Open system

 

1. Closed system

 

1. Open as well as closed

 

1. None of these

 

QUESTION 17

 

"Which dimension of Big 5 personality traits represents artistically sensitive, refined etc. "

                       

1. Culture

 

1. Emotional stability

 

1. Conscientiousness

 

1. Extroversion

 

QUESTION 18

 

Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. Where do the factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside?

                       

1. the perceivers

 

1. the target

 

1. the timing

 

1. the context

 

QUESTION 19

 

What do we call the view that we can learn both through observation and direct experience?

                       

1. situational learning theory

 

1. classical learning

 

1. social learning theory

 

1. the Pavlov principle

 

QUESTION 20

 

Extension of behaviour modification into organization is called

                       

1. Enrichment

 

1. Enlargement

 

1. OB Mod

 

1. OB Ext

 

QUESTION 21

 

Which of the following statements about the field of organizational behavior is FALSE?

                       

1. "OB is the study of what people think, feel and do in and around organizations."

 

1. OB emerged as a distinct field of inquiry in the 1940s.

 

1. "OB is a self-contained discipline, independent of other disciplines"

 

1. OB theories are usually tested using the scientific method.

 

QUESTION 22

 

Which of the following is/are the key features of organization

                       

1. Social invention

 

1. Accomplishing goals

 

1. Group efforts

 

1. All of these

 

QUESTION 23

 

Psychology s major contributions to the field of organizational behavior have been primarily at what level of analysis?

                       

1. the level of the group

 

1. the level of the individual

 

1. the level of the organization

 

1. the level of the culture

 

QUESTION 24

 

What is the most relevant application of perception concepts to OB?

                       

1. the perceptions people form about each other

 

1. the perceptions people form about their employer

 

1. the perceptions people form about their culture

 

1. the perceptions people form about society

 

QUESTION 25

 

Which of the following is not a trait dimension in Big 5 personality trait?

                       

1. Extroversion

 

1. Agreeableness

 

1. Ego

 

1. Culture

 

QUESTION 26

 

Which of the following is / are not direct method to solve intergroup conflicts

                       

1. Domination by the management

 

1. Removing key figures in conflict

 

1. Persuasion

 

1. Problem solving

 

QUESTION 27

 

What is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment?

                       

1. Interpretation

 

1. environmental analysis

 

1. Outlook

 

1. perception

 

QUESTION 28

 

What do we call it when we judge someone on the basis of our perception?

                       

1. Stereotyping

 

1. Categorizing

 

1. Halo effect

 

1. Prototyping

 

QUESTION 29

 

Which of the following is an environmental force that shapes personality?

                       

1. Gender

 

1. Height

 

1. Experience

 

1. Brain size

 

QUESTION 30

 

Which is also known as a non- reinforcement

                       

1. Punishment

 

1. Negative reinforcement

 

1. Extinction

 

1. all the above

 

QUESTION 31

 

is the dynamic organization within the individual that determine his unique adjustment to the environment

                       

1. Perception

 

1. Attitude

 

1. Behaviour

 

1. personality

 

QUESTION 32

 

Operant conditioning argues that .

                       

1. behaviour is reflexive

 

1. behaviour is unlearned

 

1. behaviour is a function of its consequences

 

1. the tendency to repeat a behaviour is very strong

 

QUESTION 33

 

Which of the following is / are included as structure of human mind a. Id

                       

1. Ego

 

1. Super ego

 

1. ID

 

1. All the above

 

QUESTION 34

 

is a person s belief about his chances of successfully accomplishing

                       

1. specific task

 

1. Self esteem

 

1. Job satisfaction

 

1. Self efficacy

 

QUESTION 35

 

..is once view of reality

                       

1. Attitude

 

1. Perception

 

1. Outlook

 

1. Personality

 

QUESTION 36

 

Organization Behaviour is

                       

1. An interdisciplinary approach

 

1. A humanistic approach

 

1. Total system approach

 

1. All of these

 

QUESTION 37

 

"Mr. Sunil s one-day salary was deducted because of his uninformed leave, as he was already warned about this behaviour. It is an example of which method of shaping behaviours?"

                       

1. Reinforcement

 

1. Positive Reinforcement

 

1. Punishment

 

1. Negative Reinforcement

 

QUESTION 38

 

"In Pavlov s experiment, the bell was a/an"

                       

1. unconditioned stimulus

 

1. unconditioned response

 

1. conditioned stimulus

 

1. conditioned response

 

QUESTION 39

 

"_____ is the study of what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations."

                       

1. OB

 

1. Marketing

 

1. Sociology

 

1. Psychology

 

QUESTION 40

 

. A study of human behaviour in organizational settings is

                       

1. Individual behaviour

 

1. Group behaviour

 

1. Organizational behaviour

 

1. None of these

MODULE I: Environmental Studies

 

 

Nitrogen is the _________ amount of gas found in air.

Select one:

1. Maximum
2. Minimum
3. Neutral
4. None of the above

 

Environmental studies include -

Select one:

1. Biology, Geology, Chemistry, Physics, Engineering, Statistics, and Economics
2. Health, Anthropology, Sociology, Computers and Philosophy
3. Either A or B
4. Both A and B

 

Environmental studies is a/an _______________.

Select one:

1. Applied Science
2. Science
3. Social Science
4. Traditional Science

 

 

Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall

Select one:

1. Evaporation
2. Condensation
3. Both evaporation & condensation
4. Filtration

 

Our natural resources can be compared with money in a bank. If we use it rapidly, the capital will be reduced to zero. On the other hand, if we use only the interest, it can sustain us over the longer term. This is called _____________ .

Select one:

1. Development
2. Sustainable utilisation or development
3. Sustainable utilisation
4. None of the above

 

___________ , such as minerals and oil are those which will be exhausted in the future if we continue to extract these without a thought for subsequent generations

Select one:

1. Non-renewable resources
2. Renewable resources
3. Either A or B
4. Both A and B

 

Which day is Earth Day?

Select one:

1. 22nd April
2. 31st October
3. 12th July
4. 10th September

 

Plants are the ____________ of energy.

Select one:

1. Renewable source
2. Non -Renewable source
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

 

Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

Select one:

1. Plastics
2. Polythene
3. Glass
4. None of these

 

Under typical atmospheric conditions, water vapour is continuously generated by _______ and removed by__________ .

Select one:

1. Evaporation, Condensation
2. Condensation, Evaporation
3. Evaporation, distillation
4. None of the above

 

What is the full form of BNHS ?

Select one:

1. Bombay Natural History Sector
2. Bombay Natural History Society
3. Bombay Nuclear History Sector
4. None of the above

 

Uttar hand Sava Niche (UKSN), Alomar, The Organisation is a Nodal Agency which supports NGOs in need of ___________.

Select one:

1. Funds for their environment related activities
2. Betterment of natural resources
3. Decay of hazardous elements in the nature
4. None of the above

 

World Wide Fund for Nature was initiated in ?

Select one:

1. 1968
2. 1969
3. 1970
4. 1971

 

CPR Environmental Education Centre, Madras attention focuses on -

Select one:

1. NGOs
2. Teachers
3. Women
4. All of the above

 

_________spoke of the dangers of commerce to our environment way back in the 1840s.

Select one:

1. John Muir
2. Ralph Emerson
3. Charles Darwin
4. Henry Thoreau

 

Who wrote the ‘Origin of Species’, which brought to light the close relationship between habitats and species ?

Select one:

1. Salem Ali’
2. Ralph Emerson
3. Charles Darwin
4. Henry Thoreau

 

________ is remembered as having saved the great ancient sequoia trees in California’s forests.

Select one:

1. Ralph Emerson
2. Henry Thoreau
3. Aldo Leopold
4. John Muir

 

Module II: Ecosystems

 

________________ is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophy to organic substances.

Select one:

1. Primary productivity
2. Secondary productivity
3. Tertiary productivity
4. None of the above

 

____________ of forest depends on plants and animals form communities that are specific to each forest type.

Select one:

1. Biotic type
2. Abiotic type
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above

 

__________________ which is the largest dam in Tamil Nadu located across Cauvery river.

Select one:

1. Metter dam
2. Adavinai

 

____________ named so because they receive a lot of rain.

Select one:

1. Tropical Deciduous Forests
2. Tropical Thorn forests
3. The tropical rain forest
4. Swamp Forests

 

___________highest percentage is covered by forests.

Select one:

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Mizoram
4. Nagaland

 

The Bishop tribe in Rajasthan is known to have protected their___________________ for several generations.

Select one:

1. Khedive trees
2. The Advise Bhatia tribe
3. The Monad tribe
4. None of the above

 

Coal and Petroleum is the _____________ natural energy resource?

Select one:

1. Renewable exhaustible
2. Non Renewable exhaustible
3. Maximum energy resource
4. None of the above

 

The forest type mainly depends on -

Select one:

1. Climate and Soil
2. Deciduous
3. Xerophytes
4. All of the above

 

___________ is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem.

Select one:

1. Biogeochemical cycle
2. Substance turnover
3. Phosphorous cycle
4. Cycling of substances

 

South Africa has lost a large area of natural habitat in the last four decades, due to-

Select one:

1. Deforestation
2. Vast development
3. Overpopulation
4. All of the above

 

Tsunamis can result from ___________________.

Select one:

1. large volumes of water being displaced.
2. an oceanic plate colliding into a continental plate
3. violent seafloor movement associated with earthquakes.
4. an explosive volcanic eruption causing an earthquake in a continental plate.

 

A Atrophy Carcass plant can be used for ?

Select one:

1. Bio Fuel
2. Medicinal
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above

 

Which Land can be used for farming ?

Select one:

1. Catchment
2. Arable
3. Reclaimable
4. Derelict

 

Survey of India is meant for measuring ______________ of administrative units.

Select one:

1. Geographical area
2. Industrial area
3. Forest Department
4. Agricultural Department

 

Which of the following requires maximum energy?

Select one:

 

1. Secondary consumer
2. Decomposer
3. Primary consumer
4. Primary producer

 

In an ecosystem, when one organism is

dependent on the other, it is called.

Select one

Select one:

1. Environment
2. Living
3. Food chain
4. Nitrogen cycle

 

Which statement is correct with respect to the food chain?

Select one:

 

1. Every component of food chain forms tropic level
2. Inter-relation between different food chains is known as a food web
3. All the chains formed by nutritional relations is used to understand energy flow.
4. All of the above

 

MODULE III: Environmental Pollution /

 

 

 

 

What is the hazardous pollutant released from telephones?

Select one:

1. Lithium
2. Barium
3. Lead
4. Copper

 

Nickel is released from ____

Select one:

1. Display
2. Calculator
3. Alloy
4. Transformers

 

Plasma Pyrolysis is a new generation, which integrates the________ properties of plasma with the pyrolysis process

Select one:

1. Thermo-chemical
2. Thermo -electrical
3. Both of the above
4. All of the above

 

What is the hazardous pollutant released from circuit boards?

Select one:

1. Arsenic
2. Barium
3. Lead
4. Copper

 

What are the types of e-Waste ?

Select one:

1. Large household appliances
2. IT and telecommunications equipment
3. Electrical and electronic tools
4. All of the above

 

What is the hazardous pollutant released from LED’s?

Select one:

1. Arsenic
2. Barium
3. Cobalt
4. Cadmium

 

What is the hazardous pollutant released from inductive coils?

Select one:

1. Arsenic
2. Barium
3. Cobalt
4. Copper

 

Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature?

Select one:

1. Lead
2. Glass
3. Plastic
4. Iron

 

Which of the following element/s is/are cause of e-waste?

Select one:

1. Lead
2. Cadmium
3. Beryllium, or Brominates flame retardants
4. All of the above

 

Which of the hazardous pollutant occurs in plastic?

Select one:

1. Lithium
2. PCBs
3. Lead
4. Copper

 

Which one of the following is the prime factor towards soil pollution?

Select one:

1. Dumping of industrial wastes
2. Soil erosion
3. Floods
4. Using land for irrigation

The reason of pollution is

Select one:

1. All the above
2. Population explosion
3. Urbanisation
4. Industrialisation

 

Which of the following chemicals are responsible for the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer?

Select one:

1. Refrigerants
2. Propellants
3. Foam-blowing agents
4. All of the mentioned

 

What is the major reason of ozone depletion?

Select one:

1. Release of CFC
2. Release of CO
3. Release of CO2
4. Release of CH4

 

The level of risk of a disaster depends on

Select one:

1. All of the above
2. Nature of the hazard
3. Vulnerability of the elements which are affected
4. Economic value of the elements which are affected

 

The level of harm by a hazard is governed by

Select one:

1. Magnitude of the hazard
2. All of the above
3. Frequency of the hazard
4. Intensity at the impact point

 

Which of the following will not cause any atmospheric pollution?

Select one:

1. Hydrogen
2. Sulphur Dioxide
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Carbon monoxide

 

 

 

MODULE IV: Social Issues and the Environment and Human Population and the Environment

 

 

What is the hazardous pollutant released from circuit boards?

Select one:

1. Arsenic
2. Barium
3. Lead
4. Copper

 

Plasma Pyrolysis is a new generation, which integrates the________ properties of plasma with the pyrolysis process

Select one:

1. Thermo-chemical
2. Thermo -electrical
3. Both of the above
4. All of the above

 

What is the hazardous pollutant released from inductive coils?

Select one:

1. Arsenic
2. Barium
3. Cobalt
4. Copper

 

Which of the hazardous pollutant occurs in plastic?

Select one:

1. Lithium
2. PCBs
3. Lead
4. Copper

 

 

Which of the following element/s is/are cause of e-waste?

Select one:

1. Lead
2. Cadmium
3. Beryllium, or Brominates flame retardants
4. All of the above

 

Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature?

Select one:

1. Lead
2. Glass
3. Plastic
4. Iron

 

Nickel is released from ____

Select one:

1. Display
2. Calculator
3. Alloy
4. Transformers

 

 

What are the types of e-Waste ?

Select one:

1. Large household appliances
2. IT and telecommunications equipment
3. Electrical and electronic tools
4. All of the above

 

What is the hazardous pollutant released from LED’s?

Select one:

1. Arsenic
2. Barium
3. Cobalt
4. Cadmium

What is the hazardous pollutant released from telephones?

Select one:

1. Lithium
2. Barium
3. Lead
4. Copper

 

__________________ help to scare off destructive nocturnal wildlife.

Select one:

1. Half motion sensor
2. Half strobe light
3. Strobe lights
4. Flashlight

 

___________________ defined the term biodiversity hotspots?

Select one:

1. Norman Myers
2. Aziz Ab'Saber
3. Warder Clyde Alee
4. Charles Christopher Adams

 

Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?

Select one:

1. Increase in the forest area
2. Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
3. Damage to human property
4. Destruction of habitat

 

The aggradation Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the ___________________which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.

Select one:

1. Ganga and the Brahmaputra
2. Ganga and Vishal
3. Vishal and Brahmaputra
4. None of the above

 

__________________ links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.

Select one:

1. The Biligiriranga hills
2. Ananthagiri hills
3. Connor hills
4. Manner hills

 

_____________is not the biodiversity hotspot region?

Select one:

1. Antarctica
2. Mesoamerica
3. Madre an pine-oak woodlands
4. California Floristic Province

 

__________________ is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone.

Select one:

1. Animals conflict
2. Desertification
3. Rural development
4. Organic farming

 

MODULE V: Biodiversity

 

 

Himalayas are divided into how many ranges ?

Select one:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

 

Where we can find more number of brown palm civet animals in Tiger reserve?

Select one:

1. Palakkad Mundanthurai tiger reserve
2. Jim Corbett tiger reserve
3. Sunder ban tiger reserve
4. Perilya tiger reserve

 

______________ consists with its sparse vegetation and it has the richest wild sheep and goat community in the world.

Select one:

1. The Himalayan ranges immediately north of the Great Himalayan range
2. The Himalayan ranges immediately south of the Great Himalayan range
3. The Himalayan ranges immediately west of the Great Himalayan range
4. The Trans Himalayan region

 

_________________ is considered as the national animal of two major countries India and Bangladesh.

Select one:

1. Komodo dragon
2. Baird’s tapir
3. Fennec fox
4. Bengal tiger

 

_______________________, the date was shifted to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on May 22, 1992at the Rio Earth

Select one:

1. On December 20, 2000
2. On November 20, 2000
3. On December 20, 2001
4. On November20, 2000

 

______________ zone of peninsular India is by far the most extensive zone, covering India’s finest forest.

Select one:

1. Deccan Plateau
2. Semi-Arid
3. Desert
4. Himalayas

 

The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in2003 to implement India's

Select one:

1. Biological Diversity Act (2003)
2. Biological Diversity Act (2002)
3. Biological Diversity Act (2001)
4. Biological Diversity Act (2000)

 

_________________ is a beautiful species of tarantula which is found only in a small area of less than 100 squarekilometers of Andhra Pradesh in India. Despite its venomous nature, the tarantula is one of the costliest pets in the exotic pet trade.

Select one:

1. Cobalt blue tarantula
2. Pink toe tarantula
3. Chilean rose tarantula
4. Gouty tarantula

 

The fan-throated lizard is a species of agamid lizard which is found in _________________.

Select one:

1. Northern India
2. Western India
3. Southern India
4. Eastern India

 

___________________ on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity.

Select one:

1. The Nagoya Protocol
2. The Kyoto Protocol
3. Earth Protocol
4. None of the above

 

Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlifeconflict?

Select one:

1. Increase in the forest area
2. Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
3. Damage to human property
4. Destruction of habitat

The aggradation Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the ___________________which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.

Select one:

A .Ganga and the Brahmaputra

1. Ganga and Vaishali

c .Vaishali and Brahmaputra

d .None of the above

________________ is called for the natural habitats underin-situ conservation?

Select one:

a.Protected areas

1. Exploited areas
2. Depleted areas
3. Unprotected areas

___________________ defined the term biodiversity hotspots?

Select one:

1. Norman Myers
2. Aziz Ab'Saber
3. Warder Clyde Alee
4. Charles Christopher Adams

__________________ is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone.

Select one:

1. Animals conflict
2. Desertification
3. Rural development
4. Organic farming

_____________is not the biodiversity hotspot region?

Select one:

1. Antarctica
2. Mesoamerica
3. Madre an pine-oak woodlands
4. California Floristic Province

 

__________________ links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.

Select one:

1. The Biligiriranga hills
2. Ananthagiri hills
3. Connor hills
4. Munnar hills

 

assignment 2

 

 

Case Study (Centres of Biodiversity)

The mountain ecosystem is globally important as a centre of biological diversity.

The greatest diversity of vascular plant species occurs in mountains: Costa Rica, the

tropical eastern Andes, the Atlantic forest of Brazil, the eastern Himalaya-Yunnan

region, northern Borneo and Papua New Guinea. Other important centres are found in

arid  subtropical mountains. Many of these areas with the greatest biological diversity

are designated as national reserves or other types of protected area. Mountains also

have a wide variety of animals like the bears, large cats, sheep, etc.

 

The ___________ is exclusively found in South African fynbosvegetation.

Select one:

1. Orange-breasted sunbird
2. Ruby-cheeked sunbird
3. Fraser's sunbird
4. Grey-headed sunbird

 

Clinotarsus curtipes is endemic to the ____________ .

Select one:

1. California
2. South Africa
3. Great Basin
4. Western Ghats of India

 

Amphipsalta  zelandica, a species endemic to __________.

Select one:

1. New Zealand
2. California
3. Great Basin
4. South Africa

 

___________ is the modern concept of conservation.

Select one:

 

1. Bird Sanctuary
2. Biosphere reserve
3. National Park
4. None of the above

MAB means ?

Select one:

1. Mammal & biological Programme
2. Man & biosphere Programme
3. Mammal & biosphere Programme
4. None of the above

 

 

Module 1: Introduction to Financial Management & Tools for financial decision making

The statement of cash flows presents the flows into which three groups of business activities?

Select one:

1. Operating, nonoperating, and financing
2. Operating, investing, and financing
3. Operating, nonoperating, and investing
4. None of the above

 

__________ is concerned with the maximization of a firm's earnings after taxes

Select one:

1. Shareholder wealth maximization
2. Profit maximization
3. Stakeholder maximization
4. EPS maximization

 

Which ratio would a company most likely use to measure its ability to meet short - term obligations?

Select one:

1. Current ratio
2. Payables turnover
3. Gross profit margin
4. None of the above

 

Financial structure refers to ________________.

Select one:

1. Short-term resources.
2. Long-term resources
3. All the financial resources
4. None of these

 

Which of the following are not among the daily activities of financial management?

Select one:

1. Sale of shares and bonds
2. Credit management
3. Inventory control
4. The receipt and disbursement of funds

 

Interest paid (earned) on both the original principal borrowed (lent) and previous interest earned is often referred to as__________.

Select one:

1. Present value
2. Compound interest
3. Simple interest
4. Future value

 

The market value of the firm is the result of__________.

Select one:

1. Dividend decisions
2. Working capital decisions
3. Capital budgeting decisions
4. Trade-off between risk and return

 

The long-run objective of financial management is to_____________.

Select one:

1. Maximize earnings per share
2. Maximize the value of the firm's common stock
3. Maximize return on investment
4. Maximize market share

 

 

________ is concerned with the acquisition, financing, and management of assets with some overall goal in mind.

Select one:

1. Financial management
2. Profit maximization
3. Agency theory
4. Social responsibility

 

Basic objective of Financial Management is________________.

Select one:

1. Maximization of profit
2. Maximization of shareholder's wealth
3. Ensuring Financial discipline in the firm.
4. All of these

 

In 3 years you are to receive Rs.10, 000. If the interest rate were to suddenly decrease, the present value of that future a mount to you would __________.

Select one:

1. Fall.

b   Rise.

1. Remain unchanged
2. Cannot be determined

 

If a company issues bonus shares, the debt equity ratio _____.

Select one:

1. Remain unaffected
2. Will be affected
3. Will improve
4. None of the above

 

 

When capital market is booming, firms can take market route to ______.

Select one:

1. Raise capital
2. Decrease capital
3. Stop growing
4. Stagnate

 

Comparison of a company ’ s financial results to other peer companies for the same time period is called

Select one:

1. horizontal analysis.
2. time - series analysis.
3. cross - sectional analysis.
4. None of the above

 

The present value of €100 that will be received two years from today is:

Select one:

100. less than €100.
101. equal to €100
102. more than €100.
103. more than €100.

 

What does the P/E ratio measure?

Select one:

1. The “multiple ” that the stock market places on a company ’ s EPS.
2. The relationship between dividends and market prices.
3. The earnings for one common share of stock.
4. None of the above

 

 

The present value of an annuity of INR. 80 a years for 20 years at5% p.a is

 

Select one:

 

1. 997 (appx.)
2. 900
3. 1000
4. none of these

Clear my choice

 

 

 

 

Module 2: Analysis and Techniques of Capital budgeting

 

 

In proper capital budgeting analysis we evaluate incremental

Select one:

1. Accounting income
2. Operating profit
3. Earnings
4. Cash flow

 

Which of the following features is not associated with capital budgeting decision?

Select one:

1. Long term
2. Large Capital Outlay
3. Reversibility
4. High Risk

 

Which of the following is the first step in capital budge ting process?

Select one:

1. Final approval
2. Screening the proposal
3. Identification of investment proposal
4. Implementing proposal

 

Capital rationing refers to a situation where

Select one:

1. Funds are restricted and the management has to choose from amongst

available alternative investments

1. Funds are unlimited and the management has to decide how to allocate them to suitable projects investments
2. Very few feasible investment proposals are available with the

management

1. None of the above

 

______________ is a long term planning for financing proposed capital outlay.

Select one:

1. Capital Budgeting
2. Budgeting
3. Cash Budget
4. Sales Budget

 

Capital budgeting is done for

Select one:

1. Evaluating short term investment decisions.
2. Evaluating medium term investment decisions
3. Evaluating long term investment decisions
4. None of the above

 

The project can be selected if its profitability index is more than______.

Select one:

1. 1%
2. 2%
3. 5%
4. 6%

 

The term _________________ refers to the period in which the project will generate the necessary cash flow to recoup the initial investment.

Select one:

1. Internal return
2. Payback period
3. Discounting return
4. Accounting return

 

The term mutually exclusive investments mean:

Select one:

1. Choose only the best investments.
2. Selection of one investment precludes the selection of an alternative
3. The elite investment opportunities will get chosen
4. There are no investment options available

 

In case a company considers a discounting factor higher than the cost of capital for arriving at present values, the present values of cash inflows will be

Select one:                                                      

1. Less than those computed on the basis of cost of capital
2. More than those computed on the basis of cost of capital
3. Equal to those computed on the basis of the cost ofcapital
4. None of the above

 

Multiple IRRs are obtained when,

Select one:

1. Cash flows in the early stages of the project exceed cash flows during the

later stages

1. Cash flows reverse their signs during the project
2. Cash flows are uneven
3. None of the above

 

Payback period in which an expected cash flows arediscounted with help of project cost of capital is classified as

Select one:

1. discounted payback period
2. discounted rate of return
3. discounted cash flows
4. discounted project cost

 

In a single projects situation, results of internal rate of returnand net present value lead to

Select one:

1. cash flow decision
2. cost decision
3. same decisions
4. different decisions

 

With respect to NPV, which of the following is incorrect?

Select one:             

1. When NPV is zero, PI will be 1
2. When NPV is zero, IRR = Cost of Capital
3. When NPV is zero, we get the PBP
4. When NPV is zero, we get Discounted PBP

 

Initial outlay 50,000, life of the asset 5 years, estimated annual cash flow 12,500, IRR =____________.

Select one:

1. 5%
2. 6%
3. 10%
4. 8%

Cost of the project is 6,00,000 , life of the project is 5 years annual cash flow is 2,00,000 cut off rate is 10% the discounted  pay  back period is ______________.

Select one:

1. 2 yrs.
2. 2 yrs. 6 months
3. 3 yrs.
4. 3 yrs. 9 months.

 

A project costs Rs, 1,00,000 annual cash flow of Rs. 20,000 for 8years. Its payback period is c...........

Select one:

1. 1 year
2. 2 years
3. 5 years
4. 7 years

 

 

 

Module 3: Sources of Finance

 

Expand GDR

Select one:

1. None of the above

b .General Depository Receipts

1. Global Domestic Reports
2. Global Depository Receipts

 

 

Equity shares:

Select one:

1. Have a limited life, with no voting rights but receive dividends
2. Have an unlimited life, and voting rights and receive dividends
3. Have a limited life, and voting rights and receive dividends
4. Have an unlimited life, and voting rights but receive no dividends

 

 

The most popular source of short-term funding is:

Select one:

1. Commercial banks
2. Trade credit
3. Factoring
4. Family and friends

 

Internal sources of finance do not include

Select one:

1. Ordinary shares
2. Retained earnings
3. Better management of working capital
4. Reserve and Surplus

 

Expand ADR

Select one:

1. American Depository Receipts
2. American Domestic Receipts
3. All-India Depository Receipts
4. All-India Domestic Receipts

 

___________ security is known as variable income security.

Select one:

1. Equity shares
2. Preference shares
3. None of these
4. Debentures

 

Debt capital refers to:

Select one:

1. Money raised through the sale of shares
2. Inventory loans
3. Funds raised by borrowing that must be repaid
4. Factoring accounts receivable

 

External sources of finance do not include

Select one:

1. Debentures
2. Overdrafts
3. Retained earnings
4. Leasing

 

Long term finance is required for ______________.

Select one:

1. Current assets
2. Fixed assets
3. Intangible assets
4. None of these

 

A debenture

Select one:

1. Does not require security
2. Receives dividend payments
3. Is a long-term loan
4. Is a short-term loan

 

Under the factoring arrangement, the factor

Select one:

1. Makes the payment on behalf of the client
2. Produces and distributes the goods or services
3. Transfer the goods from one place to another
4. Collects the client's debt or account receivables

 

Under the lease agreement, the lessee gets the right to

Select one:

1. Use the asset for a specified period
2. Participate in the management of the organisation
3. Sell the assets
4. Share profits earned by the lessor

 

Public deposits are the deposits that are raised directly from

Select one:

1. The public
2. The owners
3. The directors
4. The auditors

 

Which is the source of mid-term finance?

Select one:

1. Discounting the Bills Receivable
2. Specialized Financial Institution
3. Collect Advances from Purchasers
4. Micro Credit

 

Commercial paper are generally issued at a price

Select one:

1. Equal to redemption value
2. Less than face value
3. Equal to face value
4. More than face value

 

The maturity period of a commercial paper usually ranges from

Select one:

1. 20 to 40 days
2. 60 to 90 days
3. 120 to 365 days
4. 90 to 364 days

 

Lease which includes a third party (a lender) is known as

Select one:

1. Sale and leaseback
2. Direct Lease
3. Leveraged Lease
4. Inverse Lease

 

 

 

 

Module 4: Working Capital Management

Current ratio of a concern is 1, its net working capital will be_________.

Select one:

1. Neutral.
2. Negative
3. None of the above
4. Positive.

 

Which of the following would be consistent with a conservative approach to financing working capital?

Select one:

1. Financing some long-term needs with short-term fund
2. Financing short-term needs with long-term

debt.inancing

1. Financing seasonal needs with short-term funds
2. Financing short-term needs with short-term funds.

 

Net working capital refers to ___________.

Select one:

1. current assets
2. current assets minus current liabilities
3. current assets minus inventories
4. total assets minus fixed assets

 

To financial analysts, "net working capital" means the samething as __________.

Select one:

1. total assets
2. current assets
3. current assets minus current liabilities.
4. fixed assets

 

Which of the following is not a cost involved in credit management?

Select one:

1. Collection cost.
2. Delinquency cost
3. Repayment cost
4. Capital cost

 

Brummel’s Model of Cash Management attempts to:

Select one:

1. Minimization of total cost
2. Minimization of transaction cost
3. Minimise the holding cost
4. Minimization of cash balance

 

Which of the following is not a technique for cash management?

Select one:

1. Decentralized disbursements
2. Avoidance of early payments
3. Decentralized collection
4. Early conversion of payments into cash

 

A firm following an aggressive working capital strategy would:

Select one:

1. Hold substantial amount of fixed assets.
2. Minimize the amount of fund in very liquid assets.
3. Minimize the amount of short term borrowing.
4. Finance fluctuating assets with long term financing.

 

Permanent working capital ___________.

Select one:

1. Includes fixed assets
2. Varies with seasonal needs
3. Includes accounts payable
4. Is the amount of current assets required to meet a firm's long-term minimum needs

 

Which of the following is the danger of too high amount of working capital?

Select one:

1. Excess working capital means idle funds which earns no profits for the business
2. It results in unnecessary accumulation of inventories and gives chance to inventory mishandling, wastage, pilferage, theft, etc., and losses increase.
3. It results in overall inefficiency.
4. All of the above.

 

ADRs are issued in

Select one:

1. Canada
2. USA
3. China
4. India

 

Public deposits are the deposits that are raised directly from

Select one:

1. The auditors
2. The directors
3. The owners
4. The public

 

Under the factoring arrangement, the factor

Select one:

1. Produces and distributes the goods or services
2. Makes the payment on behalf of the client
3. Collects the client's debt or account receivables
4. Transfer the goods from one place to another

 

Which is the source of mid-term finance?

Select one:

1. Micro Credit
2. Collect Advances from Purchasers
3. Discounting the Bills Receivable
4. Specialized Financial Institution

 

The proprietors fund is INR. 45,00,000 and ratio of fixed assets to proprietors fund is 0.75. What will be the amount of Net Working Capital?

Select one:

1. 12,00,000
2. 5,25,000
3. 11,25,000
4. 1,25,000

 

Average collection period is 2 months. Cash sales and average receivables are INR. 5,00,000 and INR. 6,50,000 respectively .What will be the amount of total sales?

Select one:

1. 44,00,000
2. 39,00,000
3. 6,50,000
4. 22,00,000

Baumol's Model of Cash Management attempts to:

Select one:

a.Minimization of transaction cost

b.Minimise the holding cost

1. Minimization of total cost
2. Minimization of cash balance

 

Module 5: Cost of Capital and Leverage Analysis

 

 

 

_____________ is a specific risk factor.

Select one:

1. Inflation risk
2. Market risk.
3. Interest rate risk
4. Financial risk.

 

Financial leverage can be measured in___________________.

Select one:

1. Stock term
2. Both (a) and (b).
3. Flow term
4. None of these

 

Operating Leverage is calculated as

Select one:

1. Contribution ÷ EBIT
2. EBIT ÷ Tax
3. EBIT ÷ Interest
4. EBIT ÷ PBT

 

There is a reciprocal relationship between ……………….

Select one:

1. DOL and margin of safety ratio.
2. DOL and DFL
3. DOL and break-even-point
4. DFL and margin of safety ratio

 

Cost of capital is __________________.

Select one:

1. None of the above
2. Equal to the dividend expectations of equity share holders for the coming year
3. Equal to the last dividend paid to the equity shareholders
4. Lesser than the cost of debt capital

 

A firm is said to be financially unlevered if the firm has ……….

Select one:

1. only equity share capital in its capital structure.
2. only external equity in its capital structure.
3. both external equity and owner’s equity in its capital structure.
4. only owners equity in its capital structure.

 

In order to calculate Weighted Average Cost of Capital, weights may be based on:

Select one:

1. Market Values
2. Anyone
3. Target Values
4. Book Values

 

Which of the following cost of capital require tax adjustment?

Select one:

1. Cost of Preference Shares
2. Cost of Retained Earnings
3. Cost of Equity Shares
4. Cost of Debentures

 

Risk-return trade off implies_____________

Select one:

1. granting credit to risky customers
2. Increasing the portfolio of the firm through in creased production
3. Not taking any loans which increases the risk
4. Taking decision in such a way which optimizes the balance between risk and return.

 

Financial Leverage is calculated as

Select one:

1. EBIT ÷ Sales
2. EBIT ÷ Contribution
3. EBIT ÷ Variables Cost
4. EBIT ÷ PBT

 

Financial break-even point is that level of EBIT at which ………….

Select one:

1. EPS > 1
2. EPS = 0
3. EPS < 0
4. EPS > 0

 

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding earnings per share (EPS) maximization as the primary goal of the firm?

Select one:

1. EPS maximization does not specify the timing or duration of expected EPS
2. EPS maximization naturally requires all earnings to be retained
3. EPS maximization is concerned with maximizing net income
4. EPS maximization ignores the firm's risk level

 

Marginal Cost of capital is the cost of:

Select one:

1. None of the above
2. Additional Funds
3. Additional Interests
4. Additional Revenue

 

_____________ is the minimum required rate of earnings or the cut off rate of capital expenditure.

Select one:

1. Working capital
2. Equity capital
3. Cost of capital
4. None of the above

 

Which of the following is not a generally accepted approach for Calculation of Cost of Equity?

Select one:

1. Rate of Pref. Dividend Plus Risk
2. Price-Earnings Ratio
3. Dividend Discount Model
4. CAPM

 

Company X issues 11% bonds of INR. 100 for an amount aggregating INR. 200,000 at 10% premium, redeemable at par after 5 years. Corporate tax rate is 35%. The cost of bonds would be:

Select one:

1. 0.049
2. 0.06
3. 0.052
4. 0.05

 

X ltd issues rupees 50,000 8% debentures at a discount of 5%.The tax rate is 50% the cost of debt capital is __________.

Select one:

1. 0.04
2. 4.2%.
3. 0.046
4. 0.05

Assignment 2

Case Study

The expected cash flows of three project sare given below. The

cost of capital is 10percent.

 

Period	Project A(INR.)		Project B(INR.)		Project C(INR.)
0	(5,000)		(5,000)		(5,000)
1	900		700		2000
2	900		800		2000
3	900		900		2000
4	900		1000		1000
5		900		1100
6		900		1200
7		900		1300
8		900		1400
9		900		1500
10		900		1600

 

 

Payback Period for Project A, B & C

Select one:

2. 2.23 years, 5.42 years & 4.5 years
3. None of the above
4. 4.23 years, 5.42 years & 3.5 years
5. 5.56 years, 5.42 years & 2.5 years

 

Net Present Value (NPV) for Project A, B & C

Select one:

1. 732, 1500 & 555
2. 430, 1400 & 610
3. None of the above
4. 530, 1591 & 655

 

Internal Rate of Return (IRR) for Project A, B & C

Select one:

12. 12.42%, 16.72% & 16.52%
13. None of the above
14. 10.05%, 11% & 15.05%
15. 11.05%, 15.05% & 18.90%

 

Accounting Rate of Return for Project A, B & C

Select one:

1. 13%, 22% & 19%
2. 12%, 25%, & 17%
3. None of the above
4. 16% , 26% & 20%

 

Ranking of all the project based on NPV

Select one:

1. Rank 1-project C, Rank 2-project B & Rank 3-project A
2. Rank 1-project A, Rank 2-project B & Rank 3-project C
3. None of the above
4. Rank 1-project B, Rank 2-project C & Rank 3-project A

 

Module I : Introduction to Human Resource Management

 

 

Human resource management emphasis on which of the following

Select one:

1. Development of people
2. Punishment of people
3. Adoption of people
4. None of the options

 

_______Must be combined to and support the mission, vision ,values, strategy, or goals of an organisation.

Select one:

1. HR practices
2. HR Policies
3. organisational values
4. Organisational diversification

 

Directing is one of the important functions of HRM which comes under ___________.

Select one:

1. managerial function
2. operative function
3. technical function
4. technical function

 

HR managers often act as trusted ________to the management team on all employee and employment-related matters.

Select one:

1. philosophers
2. team members
3. advisors
4. executives

 

KSA of an employee represents_________

Select one:

1. Knowledge, Skill, Aptitude
2. Knowledge, System, Aptitude
3. Knowledge, System, Aptitude
4. Knowledge, Skill, Attitude

HRM stands for _______?

Select one:

1. Human Relations Movement
2. Humanistic Resource Management
3. Human Resource Management
4. Human Research Management

 

Human Resource (HR) technology is an umbrella term for software and associated platforms for automating the _______in organisations.

Select one:

1. departmentalization
2. HR Functions
3. Recruitment
4. Planning

 

An _____ is an award that is tangible or physically given to you for accomplishing something. It is a tangible recognition of ones endeavour.

Select one:

1. extrinsic reward
2. intrinsic reward
3. performance reward
4. basic reward

 

An organization's HRM function focuses on the _____of management.

Select one:

1. Organisational side
2. People as Assets aspect
3. people side
4. None of these

 

Which of the following is not a feature of Human resource Development ?

Select one:

1. It tries to develop competencies at the organisation level
2. It helps is establishing/developing better inter-personal relations
3. It does not stress on development of human resources of the organisation.
4. It is a continuous and systematic learning process.

 

Which of the following options is NOT a main function of compensation management

Select one:

1. The Welfare Function
2. The Retention Function
3. The Motivation Function
4. The Performance Function

 

which of the following is a challenge faced by HR Managers

Select one:

1. Technological changes, workforce diversity, globalisation
2. Productivity, career planning
3. Compensation management
4. Downsizing and voluntary retirement scheme

 

Which of the following skills are vital for successful human relations.

1. Communication
2. Conflict Resolution
3. Multitasking
4. Negotiation

Select one:

1. Only A & B
2. Only B & C
3. Only A, C, D
4. All A, B, C, D

 

Revenue per employee is obtained by dividing a ______ by

the total number of employees in the company.

Select one:

1. company fs expenditure
2. companyfs revenue
3. companyfs Net Profit
4. Company's dividends

 

HR analytics is a methodology for creating insights on how investments in human capital assets contribute to the success of Principal outcomes. Which of the following options is not a Principal Outcome

Select one:

1. generating revenue
2. maximizing expenses
3. mitigating risks
4. executing strategic plans

 

Compensation may also be viewed as which of the following options

1. A system of rewards that motivates employees to perform
2. A tool used by organisations to foster the values, culture and the behaviour they require
3. An instrument that enables organisations to achieve their business objectives.

Select one:

1. Only A & B
2. Only A & C
3. Only B & C
4. All A, B, C

 

Which of the following is a feature of Human Resource Management ?

1. It is people-centered.
2. It is a pervasive function of management
3. It deals with personnel activities

Select one:

a .  Only A & B

1. Only A & C
2. Only B & C
3. All A, B, C

 

 

Module II Acquisition of Human Resources

 

The primary aim of recruitment and selection process is to___

Select one:

1. meet the high labour turnover
2. hire the best individuals at highest cost
3. ensure the availability of surplus in the case of sickness and absence
4. none of the options

 

Identifying the _____candidates and ______ them to apply for job is called recruitment.

Select one:

1. available, insisting
2. available, making
3. potential, attracting
4. potential, insisting

 

_________ refers to the process of identifying and attractingjob seekers so as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.

Select one:

1. Selection
2. Training
3. Recruitment
4. Induction

 

The Human Resource Planning is the process of finding

Select one:

1. the right number of people for the right kind of a job
2. at a right time
3. at the right place
4. All of the options

 

which of the following is a factor that influence Recruitment?

Select one:

1. Size of the organization
2. Working conditions within the organization
3. Salary structure of the organization
4. All of the options

 

Human Resource Planning is required to meet the requirements of _____

Select one:

1. diversification
2. growth of a company
3. Both a & b
4. None of these

 

The Process of studying and collecting information about a jobis known as

Select one:

1. Job design
2. Job analysis
3. Job evaluation
4. Job Engineering

 

who is considered as the father of scientific management ?

Select one:

1. Abraham Maslow
2. Elton mayo
3. Frederick W. Taylor
4. Roethlisberger

 

 

Resistance from employees is _____ to human resourceplanning.

Select one:

1. objective
2. advantage
3. scope
4. disadvantage

 

Job analysis is helpful in which of the following ?

Select one:

1. HRP, recruitment and selection
2. Training and development
3. Job evaluation and performance appraisal
4. All of the options

 

______is the process by which an organisation should move from its current manpower position to its desired manpower position.

Select one:

1. Human Resource Planning
2. Human Resource Management
3. Strategic Human Resource Management
4. All of the options

 

Which is the least expensive method for recruitments?

Select one:

1. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk - ins
2. Campus placements
3. Employment exchanges
4. Consultants

 

Human resource planning is done based on the

Select one:

1. market condition
2. financial condition
3. external environment
4. organisational plan

 

Jobs analysis results in which of the following ?

Select one:

1. Job description
2. Job specification
3. Job evaluation
4. All of (a), (b) and ( C)

 

Which of the following factors state the importance of the Human Resource Planning?

Select one:

1. Creating highly talented personnel
2. International strategies
3. Resistance to change and move
4. All of the options

 

Which of the following is an not an internal source of recruitment ?

Select one:

1. Promotion of Employees
2. Transfer of Employees
3. Demotion of Employees
4. campus recruitment

 

Which of these is an alternative to recruitments?

Select one:

1. Employee leasing
2. Contractors
3. Trade associations
4. None of the options

Module 3: Sources of Finance

Expand GDR

Select one:

1. None of the above
2. General Depository Receipts
3. Global Domestic Reports
4. Global Depository Receipts

 

Equity shares:

Select one:

1. Have a limited life, with no voting rights but receive dividends
2. Have an unlimited life, and voting rights and receive dividends
3. Have a limited life, and voting rights and receive dividends
4. Have an unlimited life, and voting rights but receive no dividends

 

The most popular source of short-term funding is:

Select one:

1. Commercial banks
2. Trade credit
3. Factoring
4. Family and friends

 

Internal sources of finance do not include

Select one:

1. Ordinary shares
2. Retained earnings
3. Better management of working capital
4. Reserve and Surplus

 

Expand ADR

Select one:

1. American Depository Receipts
2. American Domestic Receipts
3. All-India Depository Receipts
4. All-India Domestic Receipts

 

___________ security is known as variable income security.

Select one:

1. Equity shares
2. Preference shares
3. None of these
4. Debentures

 

Debt capital refers to:

Select one:

1. Money raised through the sale of shares
2. Inventory loans
3. Funds raised by borrowing that must be repaid
4. Factoring accounts receivable

 

External sources of finance do not include

Select one:

1. Debentures
2. Overdrafts
3. Retained earnings
4. Leasing

 

Long term finance is required for ______________.

Select one:

1. Current assets
2. Fixed assets
3. Intangible assets
4. None of these

 

A debenture

Select one:

1. Does not require security
2. Receives dividend payments
3. Is a long-term loan
4. Is a short-term loan

 

Under the factoring arrangement, the factor

Select one:

1. Makes the payment on behalf of the client
2. Produces and distributes the goods or services
3. Transfer the goods from one place to another
4. Collects the client's debt or account receivables

 

Under the lease agreement, the lessee gets the right to

Select one:

1. Use the asset for a specified period
2. Participate in the management of the organisation
3. Sell the assets
4. Share profits earned by the lessor

 

Public deposits are the deposits that are raised directly from

Select one:

1. The public
2. The owners
3. The directors
4. The auditors

 

Which is the source of mid-term finance?

Select one:

1. Discounting the Bills Receivable
2. Specialized Financial Institution
3. Collect Advances from Purchasers
4. Micro Credit

 

Commercial paper are generally issued at a price

Select one:

1. Equal to redemption value
2. Less than face value
3. Equal to face value
4. More than face value

 

The maturity period of a commercial paper usually ranges from

Select one:

1. 20 to 40 days
2. 60 to 90 days
3. 120 to 365 days
4. 90 to 364 days

 

Lease which includes a third party (a lender) is known as

Select one:

1. Sale and leaseback
2. Direct Lease
3. Leveraged Lease
4. Inverse Lease

 

 

Module 4: Working Capital Management

 

 

Current ratio of a concern is 1, its net working capital will be_________.

Select one:

1. Neutral.
2. Negative
3. None of the above
4. Positive.

 

Which of the following would be consistent with a conservative approach to financing working capital?

Select one:

1. Financing some long-term needs with short-term fund
2. Financing short-term needs with long-term

      debt.inancing

1. Financing seasonal needs with short-term funds
2. Financing short-term needs with short-term funds.

 

Net working capital refers to ___________.

Select one:

1. current assets
2. current assets minus current liabilities
3. current assets minus inventories
4. total assets minus fixed assets

 

To financial analysts, "net working capital" means the same thing as __________.

Select one:

1. total assets
2. current assets
3. current assets minus current liabilities.
4. fixed assets

 

Which of the following is not a cost involved in credit management?

Select one:

1. Collection cost.
2. Delinquency cost
3. Repayment cost
4. Capital cost

 

Baumol's Model of Cash Management attempts to:

Select one:

1. Minimization of total cost
2. Minimization of transaction cost
3. Minimise the holding cost
4. Minimization of cash balance

 

Which of the following is not a technique for cash management?

Select one:

1. Decentralized disbursements
2. Avoidance of early payments
3. Decentralized collection
4. Early conversion of payments into cash

 

A firm following an aggressive working capital strategy would:

Select one:

1. Hold substantial amount of fixed assets.
2. Minimize the amount of fund in very liquid assets.
3. Minimize the amount of short term borrowing.
4. Finance fluctuating assets with long term financing.

 

Permanent working capital ___________.

Select one:

1. Includes fixed assets
2. Varies with seasonal needs
3. Includes accounts payable
4. Is the amount of current assets required to meet a firm'slong-term minimum needs

 

Which of the following is the danger of too high amount ofworking capital?

Select one:

1. Excess working capital means idle funds which earns noprofits for the business
2. It results in unnecessary accumulation of inventories and gives chance to inventory mishandling, wastage, pilferage,theft, etc., and losses increase.
3. It results in overall inefficiency.
4. All of the above.

 

ADRs are issued in

Select one:

1. Canada
2. USA
3. China
4. India

 

Public deposits are the deposits that are raised directly from

Select one:

1. The auditors
2. The directors
3. The owners
4. The public

 

Under the factoring arrangement, the factor

Select one:

1. Produces and distributes the goods or services
2. Makes the payment on behalf of the client
3. Collects the client's debt or account receivables
4. Transfer the goods from one place to another

 

Which is the source of mid-term finance?

Select one:

1. Micro Credit
2. Collect Advances from Purchasers
3. Discounting the Bills Receivable
4. Specialized Financial Institution

 

The proprietors fund is INR. 45,00,000 and ratio of fixed assets to proprietors fund is 0.75. What will be the amount of Net Working Capital?

Select one:

1. 12,00,000
2. 5,25,000
3. 11,25,000
4. 1,25,000

 

Average collection period is 2 months. Cash sales and averagereceivables are INR. 5,00,000 and INR. 6,50,000 respectively. What will be the amount of total sales?

Select one:

1. 44,00,000
2. 39,00,000
3. 6,50,000
4. 22,00,000

 

Baumol's Model of Cash Management attempts to:

Select one:

1. Minimization of transaction cost
2. Minimise the holding cost
3. Minimization of total cost
4. Minimization of cash balance

 

Module 5: Cost of Capital and Leverage Analysis

 

_____________ is a specific risk factor.

Select one:

1. Inflation risk
2. Market risk.
3. Interest rate risk
4. Financial risk.

 

Financial leverage can be measured in___________________.

Select one:

1. Stock term
2. Both (a) and (b).
3. Flow term
4. None of these

 

 

Operating Leverage is calculated as

Select one:

1. Contribution ÷ EBIT
2. EBIT ÷ Tax
3. EBIT ÷ Interest
4. EBIT ÷ PBT

 

There is a reciprocal relationship between ……………….

Select one:

1. DOL and margin of safety ratio.
2. DOL and DFL
3. DOL and break-even-point
4. DFL and margin of safety ratio

 

Cost of capital is __________________.

Select one:

1. None of the above
2. Equal to the dividend expectations of equity share holders for the coming year
3. Equal to the last dividend paid to the equity shareholders
4. Lesser than the cost of debt capital

 

A firm is said to be financially unlevered if the firm has ……….

Select one:

1. only equity share capital in its capital structure.
2. only external equity in its capital structure.
3. both external equity and owne’s equity in its capital structure.
4. only owner’s equity in its capital structure.

 

In order to calculate Weighted Average Cost of Capital, weights may be based on:

Select one:

1. Market Values
2. Anyone
3. Target Values
4. Book Values

 

Which of the following cost of capital require tax adjustment?

Select one:

1. Cost of Preference Shares
2. Cost of Retained Earnings
3. Cost of Equity Shares
4. Cost of Debentures

 

Risk-return trade off implies_____________

Select one:

1. granting credit to risky customers
2. Increasing the portfolio of the firm through increased production
3. Not taking any loans which increases the risk
4. Taking decision in such a way which optimizes the balance between risk and return.

 

Financial Leverage is calculated as

Select one:

1. EBIT ÷ Sales
2. EBIT ÷ Contribution
3. EBIT ÷ Variables Cost
4. EBIT ÷ PBT

 

Financial break-even point is that level of EBIT at which ………….

Select one:

1. EPS > 1
2. EPS = 0
3. EPS < 0
4. EPS > 0

 

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding earnings per share (EPS) maximization as the primary goal of the firm?

Select one:

1. EPS maximization does not specify the timing or duration of expected EPS
2. EPS maximization naturally requires all earnings to be retained
3. EPS maximization is concerned with maximizing net income
4. EPS maximization ignores the firm's risk level

 

Marginal Cost of capital is the cost of:

Select one:

1. None of the above
2. Additional Funds
3. Additional Interests
4. Additional Revenue

 

 

_____________ is the minimum required rate of earnings orthe cut off rate of capital expenditure.

Select one:

1. Working capital
2. Equity capital
3. Cost of capital
4. None of the above

 

Which of the following is not a generally accepted approach for Calculation of Cost of Equity?

Select one:

1. Rate of Pref. Dividend Plus Risk
2. Price-Earnings Ratio
3. Dividend Discount Model
4. CAPM

 

Company X issues 11% bonds of INR. 100 for an amount aggregating INR. 200,000 at 10% premium, redeemable at par after 5 years. Corporate tax rate is 35%. The cost of bonds would be:

Select one:

1. 0.049
2. 0.06
3. 0.052
4. 0.05

 

X ltd issues rupees 50,000 8% debentures at a discount of 5%.The tax rate is 50% the cost of debt capital is __________.

Select one:

1. 0.04
2. 4.2%.
3. 0.046
4. 0.05

 

Assignment 2

 

Case Study

Leadership is the ability of an individual or a group of individuals to influence and guide followers or other members of an organization. Leadership involves making sound – and sometimes difficult -- decisions, creating and articulating a clear vision, establishing achievable goals and providing followers with the knowledge and tools necessary to achieve those goals. Leaders are found and required in most aspects of society, from business to politics to region to community-based organizations.

An effective leader possess the following characteristics: self-confidence, strong communication and management skills, creative and innovative thinking, perseverance in the face of failure, willingness to take risks, openness to change, and levelheadedness and reactiveness in times of crisis. In business, individuals who exhibit these leadership qualities can ascend to executive management or C-level positions, such as CEO, CIO or president. Noteworthy individuals who have exhibited strong leadership in the technology industry include Apple founder Steve Jobs, Microsoft founder Bill Gates and Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos. What makes a great leader? Multiple definitions of leadership exist, although the different definitions generally converge in the theory that great leaders have the ability to make strategic and visionary decisions and convince others to follow those decisions. The consensus is leaders create a vision and can successfully get others to work toward achieving that goal. They do this by setting direction and inspiring others to want to succeed in achieving the end result. Moreover, they are capable of getting people excited and motivated to work to ward the vision. In other words, great leaders know how to both inspire people and get followers to complete the tasks that achieve the leader's goal. Although the terms leadership and management are sometimes used interchangeably, they are not the same concept. As previously stated, leadership involves creating and articulating a vision and inspiring others to want to work toward that vision. But leaders may not be skilled at or involved with the day-to-day management of the work needed to turn that vision into a reality. Management, on the other hand, is the oversight of the tactical steps required to complete the work needed to actually achieve the objective.

Leadership often requires leaders to take on some management tasks, but good leaders understand that their strengths are different than those exhibited by good managers who excel in articulating the steps required to complete tasks and holding people accountable for achieving their share of assigned work. Leadership requires individuals to possess certain key traits, such as strong communication skills, charisma, assertiveness and empathy. Many individuals inherently possess some leadership traits, but most individuals have to develop many, if not all, of the characteristics associated with leadership.

There are numerous guidelines, books, classes and consultants aimed at helping individuals develop these traits and, perhaps more importantly, understand which traits are most effective under which circumstances and with which teams. Some people can develop leadership skills through their everyday experiences. Moreover, some people do not hold any positions of authority or business titles, yet still demonstrate leadership through their actions and abilities to rally people to act on their visions for something better than the status quo. So, Based on your understanding of leadership, answer the questions.

 

 

Queue: Leadership is __________________

Select one:

1. the process of influencing a group toward the achievement of goals
2. a group that achieves goals
3. the function of influencing a group towards the achievement of goals
4. directing a group towards the achievement of goals

Check

1. Influencing others to do what the leader wants.
2. Influencing others to achieve worthwhile goals
3. Bringing about positive changes
4. Attracting the support of others.

 

Que: arly leadership trait research sought_______________

Select one:

1. to clarify the need for leadership traits.
2. and found the traits status of leaders.
3. identification of traits that leaders could used.
4. characteristics that might differentiate leaders fromnonleaders

Select one:

1. To take decisions without prior notice and consent of the senior manager and complete the task
2. communicate with the senior managers to get your work done
3. Communicate with the lower staff to finish the work timely
4. Understand the working style of the senior managers and work accordingly

                        

Module - I: Understanding Self for Effectiveness

 

 

Which of the following is a developer of Psychoanalytic personality theory?

Select one:

1. Piaget
2. Eye sneck
3. Freud
4. Maslow

 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of personality?

Select one:

1. Consistency
2. Behaviour
3. Physiological
4. Affective

 

Which of the following is not a part of Dos and Don'ts of attitude change?

Select one:

1. Create the right attitude
2. Give the honest and sincere appreciation
3. get involved in unnecessary arguments
4. Courtesy

 

In the "us vs. them" orientation

Select one:

1. "us" are viewed in highly favourable terms
2. them are viewed in neutral terms
3. us and "them" are seen as complementary rather than antagonistic
4. us and "them" are seen as merely dissimilar, not antagonistic

 

Which of the following components of attitude can be directly observed?

Select one:

1. Emotional
2. Informational
3. Behavioural
4. Cognitive

 

D r. Bruce A. Bracken suggested how many areas of self concept

Select one:

1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 5

 

Which of the following is not true about attitude?

Select one:

1. the greater the consistency between cognition and evaluation, the greater the strength of the attitude–behaviour relation
2. They are complex combination of things generally called as personality, beliefs, values, behaviours and motivations.
3. It exists in everyone’s mind and helps define our identity, guide our actions and influences in judging other people. §
4. it also refers to the sources from which someone draws energy

 

What is practicing positive self-talk?

Select one:

1. Saying a long list of good things about yourself.
2. When you hear a negative thought about yourself you replace it with a positive one.
3. Talk out loud to yourself if you're having trouble concentrating.
4. Repeating one good word over and over to yourself.

 

What does 'T' stand for in TEA Model of Self?

Select one:

1. Thinking
2. Trust
3. Thought
4. Technique

 

"The individual's belief about himself or herself, including the person's attributes and who and what the self is" was the definition of self concept given by

Select one:

1. Rogers
2. Baumeister
3. Bracken
4. None of the above

 

The ___________ of an attitude tells us whether an attitude is positive or negative towards the attitude object.

Select one:

1. centrality
2. valence
3. extremeness
4. simplicity

 

From the Big Five personality dimensions, behaviours such as speaking fluently, displaying ambition, and exhibiting a high degree of intelligence is

Select one:

1. Agreeableness
2. Openness
3. Extraversion
4. Conscientiousness

 

The ________ complex is to girls as the ________ complexes to boys.

Select one:

1. Electra, Oedipus
2. Oedipus, Electra
3. oral, phallic
4. phallic, oral

 

Social thought and social behaviour are both influenced by:

Select one:

1. attitudes
2. research procedures
3. behavioural constraints
4. self-schematic conceptualization

 

Traits are defined as:

Select one:

1. physical characteristics that distinguish us from other people
2. relatively enduring characteristics that influence our behaviour across many situations
3. unconscious tendencies to act in different ways according to the situation
4. permanent personality tendencies that determine our behaviour in any situation

 

Why does contact between groups work to reduce prejudice?

Select one:

1. Contact may increase the perception of similarity of members belonging to the different groups
2. mere exposure" leads to liking regardless of the circumstances
3. contact promotes the illusion that groups are all alike
4. it works, but nobody knows why

 

Beliefs, opinion, Knowledge, or information is a part of__________ element of attitude

Select one:

1. Cognitive
2. Behavioural
3. Observation
4. Affective

 

 

Module-II: Understanding Self for Effectiveness

 

According to the Cannon-Bard theory, what is the relationship between physiological arousal and the experience of emotion?

Select one:

1. People experience emotion because they experience physiological arousal
2. The experience of emotion and physiological arousal occur simultaneously
3. People have physiological arousal because they experience emotion
4. None of the above

 

Motivation is:

Select one:

1. our ability to understand and perceive emotions
2. an internal state that guides our behaviour to attain the goal
3. our ability to understand cultural norms and values
4. our ability to adapt to our environment

 

Emotions are:

Select one:

1. objective responses to experiences in our environment
2. subjective responses to experiences in our environment
3. physiological changes to experiences in our environment
4. behavioural changes to experiences in our environment

 

"Positive emotions broaden peoples thoughts and enables the effective building of personal resources. Physical, intellectual ,social and psychological". This was said by _____________

Select one:

1. Fredickson
2. James
3. Cannon
4. Bard

Which of the following individuals connects to the term emotional intelligence?

Select one:

1. Goldman
2. Wechsler
3. Sternberg
4. Ekman

 

The response activated by the sympathetic nervous system is sometimes called

Select one:

1. fight or flight.
2. react and release.
3. rest and recover.
4. catharsis

 

Which one of the following is not one of the six universally recognizable, basic emotions described by Ekman and his colleagues?

Select one:

1. Surprise
2. Fear
3. Disgust
4. Anxiety

 

Which of the following IS NOT a model of motivation?

Select one:

1. self-actualization
2. cognitive
3. expectancy value
4. psychoanalytical

 

Who has given the hierarchy of needs hierarchy theory of motivation?

Select one:

1. Maslow
2. McClelland
3. Vroom
4. McGregor

 

Melissa is a good role model for her team mates. She wants to make sure her team does well and wins the conference championship. Her desire to attain this goal is described as:

Select one:

1. intrinsic motivation
2. a drive
3. extrinsic motivation
4. a need

 

The James-Lang theory of emotion would predict that:

Select one:

1. if your blood pressure rises and you get red in the face you should experience anger
2. if your blood pressure rises and you get red in the face should experience happiness
3. if your blood pressure rises and you interpret this behaviour positively you will experience happiness
4. if your blood pressure rises and you get red in the face not all individuals will experience anger

 

Which of the following IS NOT a skill associated with emotional intelligence?

Select one:

1. experiencing love
2. negotiating conflict
3. being sensitive to others
4. expressing pride and anger

 

You receive verbal praise from your caregivers when you behave appropriately. This positive reinforcement connects to motivation as a(n):

Select one:

1. incentive
2. extrinsic motivation
3. drive
4. need

 

Keri feels relaxed after an hour spent caught in traffic because she sees it as an opportunity to listen to some good music. In the same situation, Jill feels frustrated and anxious because she sees it as a waste of valuable time. The difference in the way they feel can be attributed to which of the following?

Select one:

1. Different expression of emotions
2. Different Biological responses to the situation
3. Different cognitive appraisal
4. Different Emotion work

 

1. All of the following shape emoting EXCEPT:

Select one:

1. gender roles
2. culture
3. power
4. language

 

Which among the following theories can be considered as an extension of Maslowsf Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation?

Select one:

1. Aldermen . ERG theory
2. Herzberg . Two factor theory
3. Skinners reinforcement theory
4. Vrooms expectancy theory

When analysed separately which emotions tend to have a more complex dimensional structure?

Select one:

1. Positive Emotions
2. Negative Emotions
3. Primary Emotions
4. Secondary Emotions

 

Module-III: Social and Behavioural Issues

 

Photojournalists see the use of computer software to alter images as comparable to

Select one:

1. cropping photos or increasing the contrast in the image.
2. the artistic license novelists take with facts.
3. a reporter’s making up facts for a news story.
4. a mild form of exaggeration

 

Major socializing agent

Select one:

1. School
2. Religion
3. Family
4. Law

 

Which of the following statements is false?

Select one:

1. Health professionals never carry stigmatizing attitudes
2. Health professionals experiencing mental health problems sometimes fail to seek help owing to the fear of being stigmatized
3. Increased contact with individuals who are affected maybe a way of dealing with stigma
4. Self-stigma promotes shame, self-blame and the fear of the judgment of others

 

The general process of acquiring culture is referred to as_____________ .

Select one:

1. socialization
2. acculturation
3. semi
4. none of the above

 

When was the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act enacted?

Select one:

1. 2003
2. 2004
3. 2005
4. 2006

 

A teenager who decides NOT to steal because she believes it is wrong even though no one is looking would be guided by

Select one:

1. internal socialization.
2. external socialization
3. secondary socialization.
4. adult socialization.

 

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one:

1. Socialization plays no part in personality formation in individuals
2. Large-scale complex societies that are not culturally homogenous usually have unanimous agreement about what should be the shared norms.
3. Successful socialization can result in uniformity within society.
4. b and c

 

HIV is not transmitted by

Select one:

1. Unclean syringe
2. Mother to child
3. Blood transfusion
4. Touching

In childhood disorders there are different types of problems such as Symptom-Based Disorders. One such disorder is known as enuresis, which means

Select one:

1. Sleep walking
2. Bed wetting
3. Lack of Bowel Control
4. Stammering

 

Having an audience typically ________ us if we are doing an easy task and ________ us if we are doing a difficult task.

Select one:

1. hinders, hinders
2. helps, helps
3. helps, hinders
4. hinders, helps

 

Which among the following is not correct about culture?

Select one:

1. Cultural traits can be acquired through socialization and habits
2. Culture is something collective
3. Culture has always links with the past
4. Culture never passed on with the help of language

 

Which of the following statements is true about stress management

Select one:

1. Stress management is learning about the connection between mind and body
2. Stress management helps us control our health in a positive sense
3. Stress management teaches us to avoid all kinds of stress
4. Only A and B are correct

 

Down syndrome occurs in approximately how many individuals

Select one:

1. 1 in 100
2. 1 in 1000
3. 1 in 3000
4. 3 in 30000

 

Social Facilitation occurs:

Select one:

1. To the tendency for people to do less in a group setting
2. To the tendency to keep personal opinions to themselves for fear of upsetting the group
3. When the presence of other people watching improves person’s performance
4. When the presence of other people watching hinders person’s performance

 

The tendency to underestimate the role of situational factors when deciding why a stranger behaved in a particular way is known as the:

Select one:

1. self-serving bias
2. fundamental attribution error
3. situational exploitation bias
4. causal explanation error

 

When does socialization begin?

Select one:

1. at the time when an individual is conceived or within the first few weeks following conception
2. at birth or shortly thereafter
3. on entering nursery school or kindergarten
4. when children reach puberty and are able to under stand the reasons for society's rules

 

As a result of Margaret Mead's 1950's study of socialization practices in six different societies, she concluded that_____________________________ .

Select one:

1. Socialization practices vary markedly from society to society.
2. Socialization practices are generally similar among people of the same society.
3. both of the above
4. None of the above

 

Module-IV: Managing Diversity for Peace and Harmony

Which of the following will not be considered as Primary group?

Select one:

1. Family
2. Peer Group
3. Neighbourhood
4. Crowd

 

Which of the following factors would come under the term of‘ diversity’?

Select one:

1. Cultural background
2. Gender
3. Socio-economic status
4. All of the above

 

People who're non-assertive don't turn out to be:

Select one:

1. Frustrated
2. Less aggressive
3. Unfulfilled
4. Misunderstood

 

Most social scientists believe individual personality is influenced by two main factors:

Select one:

1. Inherited characteristics and social environment
2. Education and genetic make-up
3. Social class and family environment
4. Local environment and family traits

 

Darley and Lateen’s (1968) Diffusion of Responsibility model suggests that bystanders are least likely to intervene in situations where:

Select one:

1. They perceive that other potential helpers are not present.
2. They perceive that other potential helpers are present.
3. They perceive that the victim is an in group member.
4. They perceive that the victim is a personal acquaintance.

 

The challenge of managing a diverse workforce is of even greater importance for:

Select one:

1. local firms
2. global firms
3. not-for-profit organizations
4. identifying organization failures

 

The constitution of India, adopted Fundamental Duties from the constitution of .......

Select one:

1. USA
2. Japan
3. Russia
4. Brittan

 

Due to emphasis on productivity & efficiency, employee are not allowed to work with harmony with one another is a limitation of_____

Select one:

1. Organizational Cultural
2. Organizational structure
3. Organizational behaviour
4. Organizational Value

 

What does the concept of diversity in the workplace refer to?

Select one:

1. Physical differences among employees
2. Social differences among employees
3. Historical differences among groups
4. managerial difference among employees

 

According to Miller-Keane & O'Toole (2003) integrity does not entails:

Select one:

1. Honesty
2. ,Justifiable human ethics
3. Judgement
4. None of the above

 

The idea that people express a preference to help those who are most closely genetically related to them is an example of which approach to prosaically behaviour?

Select one:

1. Empathy-Altruism Theory
2. Arousal Cost-Reward.
3. Evolutionary Psychology
4. Diffusion of Responsibility.

 

The caste system based on ----------

Select one:

1. Religion
2. Endogamy
3. Marriage
4. Region

 

The mainstream approach to Diversity Management supports:

Select one:

1. The business case
2. The social justice approach
3. A radical approach to equal opportunities
4. Affirmative action

 

When Fundamental Duties were added in the Constitution of India?

Select one:

1. 1976
2. 1965
3. 1999
4. 1970

 

In the "smoke" study, a greater percentage of participants helped when they were ________ than when they were________.

Select one:

1. with others; alone
2. alone; with others
3. laughing; crying
4. all participants helped regardless of who was present

 

The network of patterned human behaviour that is the product of interaction and that at the same time, guides interaction is called–

Select one:

1. Social organisation
2. Social system
3. Social culture
4. Social integration

Which of the following is not a benefit of multiculturalism?

Select one:

1. Equal opportunities
2. Enforcement of the beliefs and behaviours of the dominant ethnic group
3. Reduction of prejudice, negative stereotypes and discrimination
4. Values diversity

 

Module - V: Values and Ethics for Personal and Professional Development

 

Hindu teachings on karma and reincarnation were first presented in the

Select one:

1. Vedas
2. Brahmans
3. Upanishads
4. Bhagavad Gita

 

According to Kant genuine knowledge appears in the form of——— judgements.

Select one:

1. Analytic
2. Synthetic
3. Synthetic a posteriori
4. Synthetic a prior

 

Empathic listening is operationally defined as

Select one:

1. probing, supporting, and understanding
2. probing, advising, and understanding
3. probing, advising, and interpreting
4. probing, evaluating, and advising

 

Organizational justice is a complex issue in organizations and takes four forms: distributive justice, __________,interpersonal justice and informational justice.

Select one:

1. contextual justice
2. perceptual justice
3. procedural justice
4. multifaceted justice

 

What area of moral philosophy deals with questions about what our moral obligations are

Select one:

1. Value theory.
2. Normative ethics
3. Met ethics
4. Moral epistemology

Which of the following is not a recognised form of organisational justice?

Select one:

1. contextual justice
2. perceptual justice
3. procedural justice
4. Shareholder justice

 

The right to control your own personal information is the right of:

Select one:

1. access.
2. security.
3. privacy
4. None of the above

 

Acting on our highest values creates

Select one:

1. difficult situations
2. a pattern, over time, that helps define who we are.
3. needless worry
4. apathy.

 

 

__________ behaviour tends to arise when mangers decide to put the attainment of their own personal goals, or the goals of the organization, above the fundamental rights of one or more stakeholder groups

Select one:

1. Complementary
2. Situational
3. Unethical
4. Confusing

 

Accepted principles of right or wrong governing the conduct of businesspeople are called:

Select one:

1. business values
2. business conduct
3. business principles
4. business ethics

 

A statement asserting that an action is right or wrong (moral or immoral) or that something (such as a person or motive) is good or bad is a/an…

Select one:

1. Amoral statement
2. Moral statement
3. No moral statement
4. Motivating statement

 

The values and assumptions shared within an organization are called the organizational

Select one:

1. values
2. DNA
3. lifestyle
4. culture

 

E-mail privacy is assured by which law?

Select one:

1. Computer fraud and abuse act of 1986
2. Electronic communications privacy act of 1986
3. Computer abuse amendments act of 1996
4. None of the above.

 

Procedural justice focuses heavily on the __________aspects of organizational decision making.

Select one:

1. mushroom management
2. fair process effect
3. managerial prerogative
4. idiosyncratic

 

The form of justice that focuses on an employee's belief that they have received fair amounts of value for work related outcome is called __________ justice.

Select one:

1. equity
2. external attribution
3. golden rule
4. distributive

 

Many values feel good or right due to:

Select one:

1. Positive feeling
2. Internal happiness
3. Natural acceptance
4. All of the above

 

What is the best description of the following argument? If the sky is yellow, then grass is pink. The sky is yellow. Therefore, grass is pink.

Select one:

1. Valid and sound.
2. Valid but unsound.
3. Invalid but sound.
4. Invalid but unsound.

 

Assignment 2

 

The Introvert vs. extrovert categorization of personality was given by:

Select one:

1. Freud
2. Jung
3. Pavlov
4. Watson

 

One of the earliest type theory was given by

Select one:

1. Hippocrates
2. Galileo
3. Darwin
4. Plato

 

Type A personality type of people are most likely to develop

Select one:

1. Personality disorder
2. Alcoholics
3. Passive
4. Negative affectivity

 

Modern typology of personality was developed in 1940s by:

Select one:

1. Hippocrates
2. Darwin
3. Sheldon
4. All port

 

The Sanguine type is associated with

Select one:

1. Phlegm
2. Black bile
3. Yellow Bile
4. Blood

 

 

 

Module I: World of Computers

 

 

Any computer regardless of its type is controlled by

Select one:

1. User
2. Programmed instructions
3. Booting
4. Hardware

 

Capacity of hard disk is measured in

Select one:

1. Gigabytes
2. Megabytes
3. Kilobytes
4. Bytes

 

Through ______ information travels between components on the motherboard.

Select one:

1. Flash memory
2. CMOS
3. Peripherals
4. None of these

 

 

Which of the following memory is capable of operating at electronics speed?

Select one:

1. Magnetic tapes
2. Magnetic drums
3. Semiconductor memory
4. Magnetic disks

 

The amount of main memory (RAM or ROM) is measured in

Select one:

1. Hertz
2. Bits
3. Bytes
4. Mega bytes

 

Which of the following statement is correct?

Select one:

1. 1 KB = 1024 bytes
2. 1 MB=2048 bytes
3. 1 MB = 1000 kilobytes
4. 1 KB = 1000 bytes

ENIAC was the first general-purpose electronic computer. ENIAC stands for

Select one:

1. Electronic Network Interactive Analytic Computer
2. Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer
3. Electronic Network Integrated Analytical Computer
4. Electronic Numerical Integrated Automatic Computer

 

One of the class of storage device that can access storage locations in any order is

Select one:

1. DTE
2. DDP
3. DDE
4. DASD

 

Which of the following retains the information it’s storing when the power to the system is turned off?

Select one:

1. CPU
2. RAM
3. ROM
4. DIMM

 

Which of the following describes the characteristics of SRAM?

Select one:

1. Based on combination of transistor and capacitor
2. Less consumption of power
3. More consumption of power and much costly
4. Cheap but slow

 

The ______ format is usually used to store data

Select one:

1. Octal
2. Decimal
3. Hexadecimal
4. BCD

 

Which of the following system modules makes a PC really portable?

Select one:

1. Battery
2. AC adapter
3. DC controller
4. PC Card

 

 

A source program is usually in

Select one:

1. Assembly language
2. Machine level language
3. High-level language
4. Natural language

 

 

Fifth Generation Computers are based on

Select one:

1. Artificial Intelligence
2. Programming Intelligence
3. System Knowledge
4. VVLSI

 

Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by _

Select one:

1. Memory management unit
2. CPU
3. PCI
4. None of the mentioned

 

Devices which are used to receive data from central processing unit are classified as

Select one:

1. output/input devices
2. digital devices
3. signalled devices
4. output devices

 

Second Generation computers are made of

Select one:

1. Vacuum tubes
2. Transistors
3. VLSI
4. None of the mentioned

 

 

Module-II: Computer Networks and Internet Technology

 

The location of a resource on the internet is given by its?

Select one:

1. Protocol
2. URL
3. E-mail address
4. ICQ

 

 

Communication channel having ______ types.

Select one:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

 

P2P is a _______ application architecture.

Select one:

1. 1–tier
2. Network client
3. Client/server
4. None of these

 

LAN can use ________ architecture.

Select one:

1. Client and server
2. Peer–to–peer
3. Both a and b
4. Neither A or B

 

A network of computers and other devices that is confined to a relatively small space is called?

Select one:

1. Wide Area Network
2. Local Area Network
3. Global Network
4. Peer-to-Peer Network

 

 

Which type of topology is best suited for large businesses which must carefully control and coordinate the operation of distributed branch outlets?

Select one:

1. Ring
2. Local area
3. Hierarchical
4. Star

 

A collection of hyperlinked documents on the internet forms the?

Select one:

1. World Wide Web (WWW)
2. E-mail system
3. Mailing list
4. Hypertext mark-up language

 

Every computer connected to the Internet is identified by a unique four-part string, known as

Select one:

1. IP address
2. Host name
3. Domain name
4. None of the above

 

Which type of topology is best suited for large businesses which must carefully control and coordinate the operation of distributed branch outlets?

Select one:

1. Ring
2. Local area
3. Hierarchical
4. Star

 

________ is the transmission of data between two or more computer over communication links.

Select one:

1. Data communication
2. Data networking
3. Networking
4. Communication

 

Which of the following do not comes under the three pillars of digital privacy?

Select one:

1. Information privacy
2. Individual privacy
3. Communication privacy
4. Family privacy

 

Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in

Select one:

1. broadcast network
2. unicast network
3. multicast network
4. multicast network

 

When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called:

Select one:

1. computer network
2. distributed system
3. both (a) and (b)
4. none of the mentioned

 

Which of the following is not an appropriate solution for preserving privacy

Select one:

1. Use privacy-focussed SE
2. Close all logical ports
3. Do not use malicious sites and torrent sites
4. Use VPN

Which of the following is not a private Search-engine?

Select one:

1. Yahoo
2. DuckDuckGo
3. Start Page
4. Wolfram Alpha

 

A _____ is a device that forwards packets between networks processing the routing information included in the packet

Select one:

1. bridge
2. firewall
3. router
4. all of the mentioned

 

A network comprising o multiple topologies.

Select one:

1. Complex
2. Hybrid
3. Bus
4. Star

 

Module III : E-Commerce

 

Private Key cryptography is also known as ???????????????cryptography.

Select one:

1. Public key
2. Symmetric
3. Asymmetric
4. None

 

What is software that comes hidden in free downloadable software and tracks your online movements, mines the information stored on your computer, or uses your computer's CPU and storage for some task you know nothing about

Select one:

1. Web log
2. Clickstream
3. Anonymous Web browsing service
4. None of the above

 

Which of the following is part of the four main types for e?commerce?

Select one:

1. B2B
2. B2C
3. C2B
4. All of the above

 

What is an electronic representation of cash?

Select one:

1. Digital cash
2. Electronic cash
3. E?cash
4. All of the above

 

????????????? is backbone of all E?payments in E?commerce

Select one:

1. EFT
2. EPS
3. PayPal
4. None of these

 

Which of the following applies to the implementation of an idea?

Select one:

1. Copyright
2. Intellectual property
3. Patent
4. Denial?of?service attack

 

Which one is not an online payment mode?

Select one:

1. Cash on delivery
2. Debit card
3. Credit card
4. e?cheque

 

A combination of software and information designed to provide security and information for payment is called a what?

Select one:

1. digital wallet
2. pop up ad
3. shopping cart
4. encryption

 

Which one is not a threat for E?commerce

Select one:

1. Trojan horse
2. Viruses
3. Worm
4. None

 

Which of the following describes e?commerce?

Select one:

1. Doing business electronically
2. Doing business
3. Sale of goods
4. All of the above

 

What is the name for direct computer?to?computer transfer of transaction information contained in standard business documents?

Select one:

1. internet commerce
2. e?commerce
3. transaction information transfer
4. electronic data interchange

 

Which of the following statements accurately reflect the impact of technology?

Select one:

1. Technology has caused buyer power to increase
2. Technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries
3. Technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services
4. all of the above

 

Which of the following is used in B2B to pay for purchases?

Select one:

1. e?commerce
2. financial electronic data interchange
3. electronic data exchange
4. electronic checks

 

Which, if any, of the following types of ads are people most willing to tolerate?

Select one:

1. pop?under ad
2. pop?up ad
3. banner ad
4. none of the above

 

What is the name given to an interactive business providing centralized market where many buyers and suppliers can come together for e?commerce or commerce?related activities

Select one:

1. Direct marketplace
2. Electronic marketplace
3. B2B
4. B2C

 

A product or service that customers have come to expect frogman industry, which must be offered by new entrants if they wish to compete and survive, is known as a(n)?

Select one:

1. Switching costs
2. Loyalty programs
3. Entry barriers
4. Affiliate programs

 

Public key encryption uses multiple keys. One key is used to encrypt data, while another is used to decrypt data. The key used to encrypt data is called the _____ key, while the key used to decrypt data is called the _____ key.

Select one:

1. encryption, decryption
2. private, public
3. encryption, public
4. public, private

 

 

 

Module IV :Database Management System

 

 

What must a system do to qualify as a true ERP solution?

Select one:

1. Be flexible
2. Be modular and closed
3. Extend within the company
4. All of the above

 

During the ________ stage of the Supply Chain Council’s Reference Model, a company must ensure that the raw materials needed to fabricate a product are on hand when needed.

Select one:

1. Planning
2. Sourcing
3. Production
4. Product delivery

 

OEM stands for __

Select one:

1. Organization Enterprise Management
2. Organized Equipment’s and Management
3. Original Equipment’s Manufacturer
4. None of these

 

Which of the following describes an ERP system?

Select one:

1. ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments
2. ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate
3. ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organisations to store critical knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organisation's performance
4. All of the above

 

Which of the following is a reason for ERPs explosive growth?

Select one:

1. ERP is a logical solution to the mess of in compatible applications
2. ERP addresses the need for global information sharing and reporting
3. ERP is used to avoid the pain and expense of fixing legacy systems
4. All of the above

 

In the initial stages ERP packages were targeted at ________industry.

Select one:

1. manufacturing
2. non-manufacturing
3. both manufacturing and non-manufacturing.
4. service oriented industry.

 

As processes become more automated and efficient,

Select one:

1. It is best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
2. It is not best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
3. It is best to treat ERP as an disinvestment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
4. It is best to treat ERP as an investment but not as a cost-cutting measure.

 

Which of the following occurs when everyone involved insourcing, producing, and delivering the company's product works with the same information?

Select one:

1. Eliminates redundancies
2. Cuts down wasted time
3. Removes misinformation
4. All of the above

 

What is one of the key resources of every organisation, in today’s competitive business environment?

Select one:

1. Employee
2. Information
3. ERP
4. Database

 

Which is one of the most critical steps in the ERP implementation?

Select one:

1. Creation of Organisational Model
2. Creation of Integrated Data Model
3. Creation of Business Model
4. Creation of Data Model

 

As processes become more automated and efficient,

Select one:

1. It is best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
2. It is not best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
3. It is best to treat ERP as an disinvestment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
4. It is best to treat ERP as an investment but not as a cost-cutting measure.

 

The sales and distribution modules of many ERP vendors, offer comprehensive set of best of its kind components for both_______ and _______ management.

Select one:

1. Manufacturing, Production
2. Sales, Distribution
3. Planning, Business
4. Order, Logistics

 

Who are the primary users of ERP systems?

Select one:

1. Sales, marketing, customer service
2. Accounting, finance, logistics, and production
3. Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors
4. All of the above

 

The ____________________ and____________________ manage the supplier relations, monitor the vendor activities and manage the supplier quality in an organisation

Select one:

1. Supplier management, customisation processes
2. Supplier maintenance, control processes
3. Supplier management, control processes
4. Supplier maintenance, customisation processes

 

The direct benefits of an ERP system include:

Select one:

1. Business integration, Flexibility, Improved customer goodwill, Customer satisfaction.
2. Business integration, Better analysis and planning capabilities, Flexibility, Use of latest technology.
3. Better analysis and planning capabilities, Flexibility, Use of latest technology, Customer satisfaction.
4. Improved customer goodwill, Customer satisfaction, Use of latest technology, Flexibility.

 

World Software automatically allows the user to, 1. Selectively mix, match and integrate software applications. 2. Easily modify it to on going business, local and organisation-specific requirements. 3. Maximise productivity by shrinking the amount of training users need. 4. Add World Vision, its advanced graphical user interface.

Select one:

1. 1 & 3
2. 2, 3, & 4
3. 1, 2, & 3
4. 1, 2, & 4

 

Important point to be kept in mind while evaluating ERP software is the total costs that includes 1. Cost of license 2. Cost of Training 3. Implementation and maintenance cost. 4.costomisation and hardware requirements costs.

Select one:

1. 1, 2, & 3
2. 2, 3, & 4
3. 1, 2, 3, & 4
4. 1, 2, & 4

 

Module V : Future Trends in Technology

 

What does P2P stand for?

Select one:

1. Password to Password
2. Peer to Peer
3. Product to Product
4. Private Key to Public Key

 

Which of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?

Select one:

1. Reliability
2. Productivity
3. Abstraction
4. All of the mentioned

 

Among the given options, which search algorithm requires less memory?

Select one:

1. Optimal Search
2. Depth First Search
3. Breadth-First Search
4. Linear Search

 

_______ as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the computing industry itself.

Select one:

1. Model
2. Computing
3. Software
4. All of the mentioned

 

_________ computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network using virtualized resources.

Select one:

1. Distributed
2. Cloud
3. Soft
4. Parallel

 

IANA stands for:

Select one:

1. Internal Assessment Numerical Access
2. Internet Association Numbers Authority
3. International Aid for Network Automation
4. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

 

Which definition best fits "Augmented Reality"?

Select one:

1. Technology that turns physical objects into digital objects
2. Technology that overlays digital information on top of real world items
3. Technology that puts users in a new digital environment
4. Technology that can achieve a human-level under standing of images

 

What does VNC stand for:

Select one:

1. Various Network computers
2. Virtual Network Computing
3. None of the above
4. Virtual Network Communication

 

The application/applications of Artificial Intelligence is/are

Select one:

1. Expert Systems
2. Gaming
3. Vision Systems
4. All of the above

 

Artificial Intelligence is about

Select one:

1. Playing a game on Computer
2. Making a machine Intelligent
3. Programming on Machine with your Own Intelligence
4. Putting your intelligence in Machine

 

Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and presenting them as a________ resource.

Select one:

1. real
2. virtual
3. cloud
4. none of the mentioned

 

Identify the Risk factors which are associated with Electronic payment system.

Select one:

1. Fraudulent use of Credit Cards
2. Sending Credit Card details over internet
3. Remote storage of Credit Card details
4. All of the above

 

How are block chains linked?

Select one:

1. Cryptography
2. A software
3. Gum
4. Connection

 

AR technology allows students to interact with the physical world by ________.

Select one:

1. Moving around to change perspectives
2. Moving closer/further to change scale
3. Select virtual objects by pointing to them
4. All of the above

 

What are the main goals of AI?

Select one:

1. To Create Expert Systems
2. To Implement Human Intelligence in Machines
3. Both A and B
4. None of the Above

 

Point out the correct statement.

Select one:

1. The use of the word “cloud” makes reference to the two essential concepts
2. Cloud computing abstracts systems by pooling and sharing resources
3. cloud computing is nothing more than the Internet
4. All of the mentioned

 

What group was one of the first to start using Augmented Reality?

Select one:

1. Doctors
2. The Military
3. Businessmen
4. Engineers

 

Assignment 2

Case Study

• In the 1960s the government owned the entire rail network. At that time there was a movement of both passengers and freight away from rail and onto the road, which made some routes unprofitable. As a result a large number of railway lines were closed. The closures were mainly branch lines through rural areas where the number of passengers could not justify keeping the stations on those lines open.
• A number of these disused lines were bought by groups of steam train enthusiasts who restored the lines. They bought and restored old steam engines and passenger carriages and ran the lines as tourist attractions. One of these lines runs through the Surrey countryside and is known as the “Deer Valley Railway” because of the number of deer which can be seen around the area. The first line was opened in 1974 and was called the Daffodil line. A large number of volunteers ensured that the track was in good order, drove the trains, sold ticket sand maintained the station buildings. By 1979 two other lines, the Tulip and Hyacinth lines, had opened. The Deer Valley Railway has been running as a very successful tourist attraction never since.
• Recently a large number of housing developments have been built along the Daffodil line. Many residents of the developments have taken advantage of the Daffodil line because it links with a mainline service to London from Broughton Park. It was felt that a team of volunteers, no matter how dedicated, could not manage the increased number of passengers. Consequently, the “Deer Valley Railway Company”(DVRC) was set up and permanent employees now run the railway on commercial lines.
• The DVRC was set up as a ‘not for profit’ company, so that revenue generated by the Daffodil line could be used to support the on going restoration of trains, buildings, and infrastructure of the three lines. The Tulip and Hyacinth lines are still run by volunteers and the manager of each line sits on the board of the DVRC. There are no immediate plans to run the Tulip and Hyacinth lines commercially.
• The Deer Valley Railway is still using equipment from the days of steam trains. The only exceptions being a modern signalling system and a private digital telephone network. Both of these use trackside cables and are maintained by signals and telecoms specialists from the team of volunteers. The telephone exchange is at Broughton Park and the telecoms specialists are familiar with both DSL and ISDN technology.
• The volunteers have installed at least one PC and printer at each station but there is no network and most of the IT equipment is second-hand and quite old. The volunteers use the equipment for tasks such as producing tickets, newsletters, publicity material, volunteer rosters, and tea shop menus.
• All of the stations are equipped with a credit card payment terminal (chip and pin). The terminals are linked to the credit card system through a standard telephone line at each station. on the basis of the following case study answer the following:-

Que: A simple WIFI modem forms a __ wireless network.

Select one:

1. a. LAW
2. WAN
3. MAN
4. None

 

Which is the transmission media that can carry huge data tolarge distances with less delay or latency?

Select one:

1. Wireless or RF or Microwave Frequency
2. Coaxial Cables
3. Optical Fibber Cables
4. Twisted Pair Cables

 

A collection of interconnected networks is called as

Select one:

1. internet
2. Intranet
3. topology
4. interface

 

The types of transmission channel or media used for LAN or WAN are for the following

Select one:

1. Twisted Pair Cables
2. Coaxial Cables
3. Fibber-Optic Cables and Radio Waves
4. All the above

 

Which transmission media is easy to install inside a city to create a network quickly?

Select one:

1. Cable media (TPC or CC)
2. Fibber Optic
3. Radio Frequency devices
4. All the above